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RRB Guwahati NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Guwahati NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, GUWAHATI

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 18.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Guwahati against CEN-03/2015, the following 602 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. The Roll Numbers are not in order of merit.

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), ECRC (Cat. No. 3) Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7), Total 602
Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Guwahati

RRB Chandigarh NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification

http://rrbportal.com/sites/default/files/RRB-Chandigarh-LOGO.jpg


RRB Chandigarh NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHANDIGARH

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No.03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Chandigarh against CEN-03/2015, the following 381 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Sr.Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 381 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Chandigarh

RRB Bhopal NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bhopal NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BHOPAL

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Bhopal against CEN-03/2015, the following 1389 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 1389 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bhopal

RRB Ajme NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Ajme NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, AJMER

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Ajmer against CEN-03/2015, the following 1587 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 1587 Candidates

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Ajme

RRB Malda NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Malda NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, MALDA

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Malda against CEN-03/2015, the following 392 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7), Total 392 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Malda

RRB Bilaspur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bilaspur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BILASPUR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Bilaspur against CEN-03/2015, the following 279 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7). Total 279 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bilaspur

RRB Allahabad NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Allahabad NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, ALLAHABAD

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

OPPOSITE NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY HQ OFFICE, Near Subedarganj Railway Hospital, SUBEDARGANJ, ALLAHABAD, U.P.211011

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC (Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Allahabad against CEN-03/2015, the following 3059 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), ECRC (Cat. No. 3) Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistantcum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 3059 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Allahabad

RRB Thiruvananthapuram NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Thiruvananthapuram NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, THIRUVANANTHAPURAM

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document
verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Thiruvananthapuram against CEN-03/2015, the following 632 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per
the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally.( not in merit order)

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7).

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Thiruvananthapuram

RRB Siliguri NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Siliguri NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, SILIGURI

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT (in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test) for Document Verification for various NTPC (Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on their performance in the 2nd Stage common CBT conducted from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Siliguri against CEN- 03/2015, the following 413 (four hundred & thirteen) candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear for verification of their documents and genuineness of candidature as per the following schedule: (Roll numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally & not in order of merit.)

COMBINED SHORTLIST FOR THE POSTS OF TRAFFIC APPRENTICE (CAT. No. 2), ENQUIRY-CUMRESERVATION CLERK (CAT No. 3), GOODS GUARD (CAT. No. 4), SR. CLERK-CUM-TYPIST (CAT. No. 6) & ASSISTANT STATION MASTER (CAT. No. 7)

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Siliguri

RRB Patna NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Patna NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, PATNA

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC (Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Patna against CEN-03/2015, the following 665 Candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have
been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 665 Candidates

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Patna

RRB Muzaffarpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Muzaffarpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, MUZAFFARPUR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Muzaffarpur
against CEN-03/2015, the following 457 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Goods Guard (Cat. No.4) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 457 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Muzaffarpur

RRB Gorakhpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Gorakhpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, GORAKHPUR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 & 18.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Gorakhpur against CEN-03/2015, the following 275 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6): Total 275

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Gorakhpur

RRB Chennai NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Chennai NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHENNAI

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 18.01.2017 & 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Chennai against CEN-03/2015, the following 960 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 960 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Chennai

RRB Jammu NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Jammu NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, JAMMU SRINAGAR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, J-S, Jammu against CEN-03/2015, the following 244 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), ECRC (Cat. No. 3) Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant
Station Master (Cat. No.7) Total 244 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Jammu

RRB Bhubaneswar NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bhubaneswar NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BHUBANESWAR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Bhubaneswar against CEN-03/2015, the following 1095 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 1095 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bhubaneswar

RRB Bangalore NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bangalore NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BANGALORE

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Bangalore against CEN-03/2015, the following 805 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): ): Total 805 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bangalore

RRB Ahmedabd NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Ahmedabad NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, AHMEDABAD

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Ahmedabad against CEN-03/2015, the following 1261 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 1261 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Ahmedabad

(Mock Test) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (Test -3)

(Mock Test) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (Test -3)

1. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is?

a) 40.1 %
b) 81.2 %
c) 90 %
d) 98 %

F

2. R.C. Coupling is used for amplification of the?

a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Power
d) Voltage

3. A ‘PNP’ Transistor is made of?

a) Germanium
b) Silicon
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None

4. The addition of pentavalent impurity to a semi conductor creates?

a) Holes
b) Free electrons
c) Minority electrons
c) Majority electrons

5. Claw hammer is mostly used in?

a) Fitter trade
b) Tool and Die
c) Carpentry
d) Black sm ithy

Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

Online Coaching for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

6. The Unit of capacitance is

a) Volt
b) Coulomb
c) Farad
d) None

7. Good conductor of electricity is?

a) Copper
b) Iron
c) Aluminum
d) Silver

8. Grinding wheels are made by?

a) Iron & Stone
b) Rod & Sand
c) Sand
d) Abrasive & Bond

We can do reaming after?

a) Milling
b) Shaping
c) Drilling
d) Spot facing

10. Sine bar is used for checking and setting of?

a) Round
b) Triangle
c) Angle
d) Square

11. What Drill Size should be used for M10 tapping?

a) 8.1 mm
b) 8.8 mm
c) 8.6 mm
d) 8.2

12. Tie rod is part of which machine?

a) Planner
b) Shaper
c) Milling
d) Lathe

13. If four resistance valve of every resistance is “R” ohm in parallel connection then the total resistance is?

a) 4R
b) 2R
c) R
d) R/4

14. Which of the following is needed while marking on round job?

a) Bolt
b) Block
c) V-Block
d) H-clamp

15. The mixture of solder wire is?

a) Tint Zinc
b) Zinc + Lead
c) Tint Lead
d) None

16. Rs.900 are distributed among A, B & C in the ratio 4: 5: 6 what will be the difference of the shares of A and C?

a) Rs. 25
b) Rs. 120
c) Rs. 130
d) Rs. 150

17. In a zoo there are Rabbits and Pigeons. If their heads are counted these are 90, while their legs are 224, then the number of “Pigeons”?

a) 68
b) 70
c) 72
d) 80

18. A cistern is filled in 9 hrs and it takes 10 hrs when there is a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full, time to empty?

a) 80 hrs
b) 85 hrs
c) 90 hrs
d) 95 hrs

The average daily wage of X, Y and Z are Rs. 120. If Y earns Rs. 40 more than Z and X earns double of what Z earns, wage of “X” is?

a) Rs. 80
b) Rs. 120
c) Rs. 160
d) Rs. 100

20. The father is seven times older than his son. After 4 years, the sum of their ages would be 50 yrs. The Son’s present age?



21. The S.I unit of Resistance is?

a) Joule
b) Ohm
c) Watt
d) Ampere

22. When an iron nail gets rusted weight?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change
d) None

23. If a body of mass “m” moving on circular path of radius “R” with velocity “ω” then the centripetal is?

a) 1⁄2 mv 2
b) mω2 R
c) mv2
d) Rω2

24. The element common to all acids?

a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Sulphur
d) Hydrogen

25. Right to Information Act comes in to force in the year?

a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2009
d) 2004

26. Who among the following “First law officer” of the Government of India?

a) Solicitor General
b) Attorney General
c) Chief Justice
d) CAG

27. Who was the second president of India?

a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
b) V.V.Giri
c) N. Sanjeev Reddy
d) S. Radha Krishnan

28. The period of First Five Year Plan was?

a) 1947-1952
b) 1949-1954
c) 1951-1956
d) 1956-1961

29. Nobel Prize is not given is which of the following fields?

a) Physics
b) Biology
c) Chemistry
d) Peace

30. Wankhede Stadium is situated in?

a) Mumbai
b) Nagpur
c) Pune
d) Bengaluru

31. “The Leaning tower of Pisa” is situated in?

a) France
b) England
c) Egypt
d) Italy



33. Complete the series 45, 54, 47, ___, 49, 56, 51, 57, 53?

a) 55
b) 48
c) 50
d) None

34. In ancient India which of the following capital of Kalinga?

a) Ujjain
b) Talcila
c) Toshali
d) Pataliputra

35. The Indian valley Civilization was primarily?

a) Tribal
b) Urban
c) Rural
d) Local

36. The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is?

a) 29 %
b) 78 %
c) 21 %
d) 0.03 %

37. “Kanchanaganga” mountain peak is in?

a) India
b) Nepal
c) Bhutan
c) Tibet

38. Which of the following is the busiest human organ?

a) Nose
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Liver

39. “Kavaratti” is the Capital of?

a) Lakshadweep
b) Daman & Diu
c) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
d) Mizoram

40. Following is Best Conductor of Heat?

a) Mercury
b) Silver
c) Leather
d) Benzene

41. The oldest mountains in India are

a) Himalayas
b) Aravallis
c) Naga Hills
d) Siwaliks

42. Who was the founder of Chola Dynasty?

a) Vijayalaya
b) Raja raja
c) Rajendra-I
d) None

43. Ascorbic acid is?

a) Vitamin –D
b) Vitamin –B
c) Vitamin –A
d) Vitamin –C

44. Who said “Swaraj is my birth right and I will have it?”

a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Subhash Chandra Bose
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

45. The lion capital at Sarnath is associated with?

a) Ashoka
b) Gopala
c) Bimbisara
d) Ajatasatru

46. Sum of the first fifteen natural numbers is?

a) 130
b) 110
c) 120
d) 140

47. How many odd numbers are there from 1 to 81?

a) 42
b) 41
c) 40
d) 43



51. “Mary Kom” is associated with?

a) Wrestling
b) Boxing
c) Archery
d) Weight lifting

52. Hill: Mountain:: Sea : ___?

a) Lake
b) Ocean
c) River
d) Water fall

53. Pick the odd one out amongst the following?

a) Pink
b) green
c) Indigo
d) Violet

54. In a code language if BCD is written as ABC then UVW will be written as?

a) XYZ
b) BCD
c) RST
d) MNO

55. In a code if ‘A’ is written as ‘Z’ , ‘B’ is written as ‘Y’ and ‘C’ is written as ‘X’ then DEF will be written as?

a) WVU
b) RST
c) SRQ
d) ONM

56. Which country has the largest number of post offices in the world?

a) USA
b) China
c) India
d) Russia

57. The Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals?

a) States in India
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Languages in India

58. Voltmeter is a device used to measure?

a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Potential difference
d) None

59. Gobi desert located in which country?

a) India
b) China
c) Asia
d) Africa

60. Where would you see a “TORNADO” the most?

a) Russia
b) China
c) Brazil
d) USA

61. The needle of compass always points forwards?

a) South
b) North
c) West
d) East

62. Titan is a moon of?

a) Saturn
b) Jupiter
c) Mars
d) Uranus

63. “Hydrophobia” is associated with?

a) Tetanus
b) Meningitis
c) Rabies
d) Dengue

64. The price of pen after a discount of 10 % is Rs. 45 what is the original price?

a) Rs. 50
b) Rs. 55
c) Rs. 60
d) Rs. 47.5

65. If 300 is decreased by 2.5 %, the answer is?

a) 292.5
b) 296.5
c) 297.5
d) 295

66. How many numbers between 101 and 300 are exactly divisible by both 3 and 5?

a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
c) 16

67. In a clock the angle traced by the hour hand in 12 hrs is?

a) 3600
b) 1800
c) 900
d) 300

68. How many days are there in a leap year?

a) 367
b) 366
c) 364
d) 365

69. Which of the following is not a prime number?

a) 97
b) 191
c) 221
d) 441



71. Pointing to a Photograph Arun said “she is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter”, Arun related to the lady?

a) Uncle
b) Cousin
c) Father-in-law
d) None

72. What will be the difference between the sum of the odd digits and the sum of the even digits in the number 857423?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4



75. Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% and 37% respectively. How much percent is the second number less than the fist?

a) 10 %
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25 %

76. Material used for making Bushes?

a) White metal
b) Brass
c) Gun metal
d) C.I

77. Bench vice spindle has?

a) V-threads
b) Square threads
c) Acme threads
d) None

78. B.S.W thread has thread angle of?

a) 600
b) 450
c) 370
d) 550

79. Lip clearance angle in a drill is kept?

a) 300
b) 450
c) 150
d) 250

80. How many tool heads can be mounted on planer machine?

a) 4
b) 1
c) 3
d) 2

81. Ratio of worm & warm wheel in dividing head is?

a) 12 : 1
b) 24 : 1
c) 40 : 1
d) 80 : 1

82. A device that converts from decimal to binary system is called?

a) CPU
b) Decoder
c) Converter
d) Encoder

83. Which of the following operation cannot be done on milling machines?

a) Cutting splines
b) Cutting gears
c) Cutting helical groove
d) Gear shaping

84. The limits of Hole are 25.00 and 25.021 and that of a shaft are 25.022 and 25.032 the type fit is?

a) Interference
b) Clearance
c) Transition
d) None

85. Shafts transmitting power at right angle to each other are connected by?

a) Helical gears
b) Spur gears
c) Bevel gears
d) Spiral gears




87. Turning water tap is an example of?

a) Force
b) Torque
c) Couple
d) Moment

88. The relation between coefficient of friction and angle of friction is?

a) μ=tanφ
b) 1 μ=tan θ −
c) μ=sinφ
d) μ=cosφ

89. If the efficiency of a machine is 100% then it is called?

a) Simple machine
b) Ideal machine
c) Lifting machine
d) None



91. Which of the following is a class – I lever?

a) Pliers
b) Nut cracker
c) Tongs
d) None

92. Scalar is a type of physical quantity having magnitude but lacking?

a) Weight
b) Magnitude
c) Speed
d) Acceleration

93. The rate of change of angular velocity is named by?

a) Displacement
b) Angular Acceleration
c) Angular Distance
d) None



95. The force of attraction between nuclear and electron is?

a) Centripetal
b) Centrifugal
c) Torque
d) Impulsive force




97. One kilogram-meter = ___ Joules?

a) 9
b) 9.81
c) 8.9
d) 8.91

98. The time period of a second’s pendulum is?

a) 1 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 3 sec
d) 4 sec

99. One horse power = ____ kgfm/sec?

a) 70
b) 73
c) 74
d) 75

Answer Key

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(Mock Test) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (Test -2)

(Mock Test) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (Test -2)

1. The Suez Canal joins Red Sea with?

a) Black Sea
b) Caspian Sea
c) Mediterranean Sea
d) Arabian Sea

2. Mahatma Gandhi was born at?

a) Baroda
b) Sabarmati
c) Rajkot
d) Wardha

3. Which of the following is a Karif Crop in our country?

a) Wheat
b) Maize
c) Barely
d) Opium

4. Pankaj Advani’s name is associated with?

a) Billiards
b) Chess
c) Police Service
d) Politics

5. The term “Middle Path” associated with?

a) Jainism
b) Buddhism
c) Hinduism
d) None

6. Which of the following is the oldest Dynasty?

a) Chalukyas
b) Cholas
c) Pallavas
d) Satavahanas

7. The founder of all Indian National Congress?

a) A.O. Hume
b) Nehru
c) Gandhi
d) Tilak

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8. Which Veda contains sacrificial formulae?

a) Rigveda
b) Samaveda
c) Yajurveda
d) None

9. Which was the main port city of Harappa Civilisation?

a) Harappa
b) Mohenjodaro
c) Lothal
d) None

10. The oldest Veda is?

a) Rigveda
b) Samaveda
c) Yajurveda
d) None

11. At which place did Buddha die?

a) Kusinagara
b) Sarnath
c) Kundagrama
d) None

12. The Buddhists literature was written in?

a) Sanskrit
b) Pali
c) Hindi
d) None

13. Where is the Meanakshi temple situated?

a) Karnataka
b) Madurai
c) Maharashtra
d) None

14. The Book titled ‘Lilavati’ is related to?

a) History
b) Polity
c) Administration
d) Mathematics

15. Where was the Capital of Shivaji situated?

a) Sasaram
b) Rajgarh
c) Raigarh
d) None

16. Who built the Grand Trunk Road?

a) Ashoka
b) Chandragupta
c) Shershah
d) Humayun

17. “Gidda” is the famous folk dance of?

a) Punjab
d) Karnataka
c) Maharashtra
d) None

18. Gandhara Art flourished under?

a) Gupta
b) Kushana
c) Bactrians
d) None

19. How many strings are there on a Sarod?

a) 19
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25

20. How many “Mahajanapadas” in Ancient Indian History?

a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16

21. Which of the following is the currency of Bahrain?

a) Peso
b) Dinar
c) Riyal
d) Bahat

22. Common wealth games 2014 will be organised in?

a) London
b) New Delhi
c) Glasgow
d) Toronto

23. Deepika Kumari’s name associated with?

a) Swimming
b) Archery
c) Billiards
d) Cricket

24. Which of the following terms not associated with Banking (or) Finance?

a) SLR
b) LBW
c) Credit
d) Repo rate

25. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of cricket?

a) Ranji Trophy
b) Davis cup
c) Thomas cup
d) Nehru trophy

26. How many members are nominated by the president of India to the Rajya Sabha?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 8
d) None

27. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a period of?

a) 4 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years

28. Complete the following series A D G J M P S V___

a) B
b) C
c) Y
d) X

29. Complete the series 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ____, ____.

a) 12, 15
b) 13, 14
c) 7, 11
d) 10, 13

30. Find odd man out?

1) Eye
2) Nose
3) Ear
4) Brain

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

31. Find odd man out?

1) 27  2) 64  3) 8  4) 9

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

32. VAB: UCD:: TEF :___?

a) RIJ
b) SKL
b) SIJ
d) SGH

33. Put in meaningful order?

1) Arrest
2) Theft
3) Punishment
4) Judgment
5) Court

a) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
b) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

34. Put in meaningful order ?

1) Set
2) Go
3) Ready
4) Target
5) Start

a) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
b) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
d) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

35. Select the missing number:

8     9     6

6     3     2

5     4     ?

240 108  96

a) 90
b) 36
c)12
d) 8

36. The heights of A and B are equal. C is shorter than A, D is shorter than E but taller than B, who is the tallest of all?

a) E
b) B
c) D
d) C

37. If ‘x’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘-’ means ‘x’; ‘÷’ means ‘-‘ then 8 X 7-8 + 40 ÷ 2 = ?

38. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed

“SIMULTANEOUS”?

a) SINGLE
b) SMILE
c) STEAL
d) SILENT

39. “Roshan” starts from house and walks 2 km towards east, turns right and walks 1 km, turns right again and walks 1km. what is the direction from him?

a) East
b) West
c) North
d) South

40. The ratio of Boys and Girls in a School is 3:2. When 6 more girls join this ratio becomes 6:5. Then the number of boys in the school is?

a) 42
b) 36
c) 24
d) 30

41. If 35% of x is 735, then 80% of x is?

a) 1680
b) 880
c) 780
d) 1080

42. A dealer offers successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 5%. A single equivalent discount rate is?

a) 35%
b) 31.6%
c) 22.8%
d) 30%

43. If the price of oil is increased by 25% what will be the percentage consumption of oil that a house must reduce, expenditure not increases?

a) 15%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 25%

45. If the ratio of the sides of two equilateral triangles is 1: 2, then the ratio of their areas is?

a) 4 : 9
b) 1 : 4
c) 1 : 2
d) 2 : 3

46. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 4: 5, then the triangle is?

a) Scalene
b) Right angle
c) Isosceles
d) None

47. A person sells 36 oranges per rupees and suffers a loss of 4% find how many oranges should be sold per rupee to gain 8%?

a) 30
b) 28
c) 32
d) 40

48. The age of Solar System is?

a) 7.8 billion Years
b) 3.2 billon Years
c) 3.8 billion Years
d) 4.6 billion years

49. Which of the following is the ore of iron?

a) Hematite
b) Bauxite
c) Galena
d) None

50. Name of river that does not originate in Western Ghats?

a) Kaveri
b) Vaigai
c) Barak
d) Godavari

51. In which part of the transformer maximum heat is produced?

a) Core
b) Oil
c) Windings
d) frame

52. The resistance of a 100 watt 230 v lamp is?

a) 52.0 Ω
b) 529 Ω
c) 2.3 Ω
d) None

53. Core of the transformer is made up of?

a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Low silicon steel
d) High silicon steel

54. If a 1000 w heater is used for 5 hrs, then the cost of energy Rs.1.50/unit will be?

a) Rs. 1.50
b) Rs. 15
c) Rs. 225
d) Rs. 7.50

55. Plug gauge is used for?

a) Checking hole size
b) Checking Oval size
c) Taper checking
d) None

56. The least count of vernier bevel protractor is?

a) 5 seconds
b) 10
c) 5 minutes
d) 900

57. Surface plates is commonly used for checking?

a) Surface
b) Right angle
b) Angle
d) 600 angle

58. A complete turn of not on a bolt is called?

a) Pitch
b) Lead
c) Helix angle
d) Round

59. Thread angle of Acme thread is?

a) 600
b) 450
c) 900
d) 290

60. Why annealing is done?

a) Soften material
b) Harden metal
c) Remove stresses
c) None

61. The distance between two crests in a thread is named as?

a) Pitch
b) Lead
c) Helix
d) None

62. The ratio between Force of friction and normal reaction is known as?

a) Angle of friction
b) Angle of repose
c) co-efficient of friction
d) None

63. The efficiency of a screw Jack independent of?

a) Load
b) Helix angle
c) Angle of friction
c) None

64. A “Thyristor” is often used in?

a) Wall clocks
b) Multi meters
c) Speed control of motoring
d) None

65. Which rectifier requires four diodes?

a) Half wave
b) Full wave
c) Full wave Bridge
d) None

66. Who was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna to be awarded posthumously?

a) Rajendra Prasad
b) Indira Gandhi
c) Lal Bahadur Sastry
d) Mother Teresa

67. “Right to constitutional remedy” has been mentioned in which article of the constitution?

a) Article 30
b) Article 32
c) Article 35
c) None

68. The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 144. If one of them is 36 the other is?

a) 36
b) 48
c) 52
d) None

69. The ratio of load lifted to effort applied is termed as?

a) Efficiency
b) Velocity ratio
c) M.A
d) None of the above

70. If a machine called as Reversible its efficiency?

a) <50 %
b) =50%
c) >50%
d) 100%

71. Water stored in a “Dam” possesses?

a) No energy
b) Electrical energy
c) Kinetic energy
d) Potential energy

72. Find the area of a square if the sum of the diagonals is 100 cm?

a) 1000 cm2
b) 1250 cm2
c) 5000 cm2
d) None

73. Work done is measured by?

a) Mass × Velocity
b) Mass × Acceleration
c) Force × Distance
d) Force × Time

74. Which layer of atmosphere is closest to the earth?

a) Stratosphere
b) Troposphere
c) Mesosphere
d) Thermosphere

75. Which is the first element in periodic table?

a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Neon
d) Helium

76. One gallon = _____litres.

a) 4.5 4
b) 4.1
c) 3.54
d) 8

78. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 200 at 20% per annum for two years is?

a) Rs. 5
b) Rs. 6
c) Rs. 7
c) Rs. 8

80. If the number 7x394 is divisible by ‘11’ then the value of ‘x’ is?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

81. Bronze consists of copper and?

a) Zinc
b) Tin
c) Silicon
d) Phosphorus

82. The Hole provided in the anvil is?

a) Round
b) Triangle
c) Rectangle
d) Hexagon

83. The voltage less than 250 V is known as?

a) Low voltage
b) High voltage
b) Extra high voltage
d) Medium voltage

84. Difference between the synchronous speed and the Induction motor speed is called?

a) Regulation
b) Slip
c) Back lash
d) lag

85. Bench vice size is given by?

a) length of jaw
b) size of spindle
c) width of jaw
d) weight of vice

86. On ‘LATHE’ to support heavy rods while turning we use?

a) Dead centre
b) Tail stock
c) Steady rest
c) carrier

87. Micrometers have least count of?

a) 0.02 mm
b) 0.1 mm
c) 0.001mm
d) 0.01 mm

88. Tri square is used to check the job?

a) Length wise
b) on 450
c) Depth wise
d) on 900

89. Identify the operation that is not normally done on a lathe?

a) Knurling
b) Threading
c) Tapering
c) Square cutting

90. The refrigerant for ice plant is?

a) CO2
b) Ammonia
c) Methyl
c) Water

91. Borax flux is used in?

a) Soldering
b) Welding
c) Brazing
d) All of the above

92. One ton of refrigerant is?

a) 200 KJ/min
b) 211KJ/min
c) 215 KJ/min
d) 250 KJ/min

93. Elbow is used to give ____turn to the pipe?

a) 450
b) 300
c) 1800
d) 900

94. “Tesla” is the unit of?

a) Flux
b) Field strength
b) Flux density
d) None

95. “Megger” is an instrument to measure?

a) Very low resistance
b) Insulation resistance
c) Inductance
d) None

97. In drilling operation the feed is expressed in?

a) mm
b) mm/sec
c) mm/min
d) mm/revolution

98. Two Bulbs are marked 100w / 220 v and 60 w / 220 v. Which has the highest resistance?

a) 100 w
b) 60 w
c) Both same
d) None

99. In a Diesel engine the fuel is ignited by?

a) Spark
b) Injected fuel
c) Combustion chamber
d) None

100. How are electrical circuits protected from overheating?

a) Thermocouples
b) Shunts
c) Fuses
d) Solenoids

Answer Key

1) c 21) b 41) a 61) a 81) b 2) c 22) c 42) b 62) c 82) c 3) b 23) b 43) c 63) a 83) a 4) a 24) b 44) a 64) c 84) b 5) b 25) a 45) b 65) c 85) a 6) d 26) d 46) b 66) c 86) c 7) a 27) b 47) c 67) b 87) d 8) c 28) c 48) d 68) b 88) d 9) c 29) d 49) a 69) c 89) d 10) a 30) d 50) c 70) c 90) b 11) a 31) d 51) c 71) d 91) c 12) b 32) d 52) b 72) b 92) b 13) b 33) a 53) d 73) c 93) d 14) d 34) d 54) d 74) b 94) c 15) c 35) d 55) a 75) a 95) b 16) c 36) a 56) c 76) a 96) a 17) a 37) b 57) a 77) d 97) d 18) b 38) a 58) a 78) d 98) b 19) a 39) b 59) d 79) c 99) d 20) d 40) b 60) c 80) c 100) c

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(Mock Test) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (Test -1)

(Mock Test) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (Test -1)

1. A lunar eclipse occurs when?

a. The moon comes between the sun and the earth.
b. The earth comes between the Sun and the moon.
c. The Sun comes between the earth and the moon.
d. None.

2. Who introduced famous 20 point input-output programme?

a. Rajiv Gandhi
b. Indira Gandhi
c. P.V.Narasimha Rao
d. None

3. The Nanvakkal is famous in?

a. Sericulture
b. Piggory
c. Poultry
d. None

4. How many bones are in the adult human skeleton?

a. 205
b. 206
c. 207
d. 212

5. The Agricultural University is it?

a. Coimbatore
b. Salem
c. Sivaganga
d. None

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6. In Tamil Nadu Bird Sanctuary is situated at?

a. Mudumalai
b. Vedanthangal
c. Mundanthurai
d. None

7. The famous lion reserve is situated at?

a. Gir sanctuary
b. Hazaribagh Park
c. Corbett Park
d. None

8. Who out of the following had abolished Zajiya on Hindus?

a. Aurangzeb
b. Jahangir
c. Shah Jahan
d. Akbar

9. Sound cannot travel through?

a. Vacuum
b. Hydrogen gas
c. Water
d. Steel

10. Which planet is the nearest to the Sun?

a. Earth
b. Venus
c. Pluto
d. Mercury

11. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?

a. Pellagra
b. Small-pox
c. Filariasis
d. None

12. The density of water is higher at?

a. 4° C
b. 0°C
c. -4°C
d. -273°C

13. Which one of the following regulates & co-ordinates the group movement of skeletal muscles?

a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Spinal cord
d. Medulla

14. Chemical equations can be written on the basis of

a. Law of constant proportion
b. Law of multiple proportions
c. Law of reciprocal proportion
d. None

15. Trimuthis festival is annually held at

a. Tanjore
b. Tirurayar
c. Tiruavares
d. Kumbakonam

16. If the side of a square is increased by 25% then how much percent does its area get increased?

a. 125
b. 156.25
c. 50
d. 56.25

17. If the circumference of a circle is 44 meters, then its area in m2

a. 145
b. 154
c. 308
d. 462

18. The height of a cylinder in 14cm and its curved surface area is 264 sq.cm. The Volume of the cylinder is

a. 308 cm2
b. 396 cm3
c. 1848 m3
d. 1232 cm3

19. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?

a. 24
b. 48
c. 22
d. 44

20. Which letter will be the sixth to the right of the eleventh letter from the right end of the English alphabet?

a. K
b. V
c. J
d. U

21. What number is opposite “3”?



22. COOK – BAT = 21, then CANE – HAD =?

a. 9
b. 11
c. 10
d. 15

23. Pointing out to a person a man said to a woman. ‘’His mother is the only daughter of your father’’. How as the woman related to the person?

a. Aunt
b. Brother
c. Cousin
d. Mother

Direction (24-27): Read the following information and Answer the questions.

Five persons namely P, Q, X, Y and Z are sitting in a park. ‘P’ is the mother of ‘X’ who is wife of ‘Z’. ‘Y’ is brother of ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is the
husband of ‘P’.

24.How is P related to Z?

a. Mother
b. Aunt
c. Mother-in-law
d. None

25.  How is Y related to Q?

a. Brother
b. Brother-in-law
c. Cousin
d. Uncle

26. How is X related to Q?

a. Daughter
b. Niece
c. Aunt
d. Mother

27. How is Q related to Z?

a. Brother-in-law
b. Father
c. Father-in-law
d. None

28. In 12 hours the hands of the clock will coincide and at 90° for how many times?

a. 22
b. 11
c. 32
d. 33

29. 15, 30, 60, 105, _______ ?

a. 160
b. 175
c. 150
d. 165

30. Find out wrong Number?

16, 23, 26, 64, 100, 144

a. 36
b. 16
c. 25
d. 144

TECHNICAL APTITUDE

31. Who invented the law of gravitational force?

a. Einstein
b. C.V. Raman
c. Newton
d. None

32. Energy generated by turbine blade is?

a. P.E.
b. P.E. + K .E
c. K.E
d. None

33. What is the purpose of tempering for hardened steel?

a. To harden the steel
b. To soften the steel
c. To change the structure
d. To strengthen the steel

34. Leg vice is sued for _______ operations?

a. Smithy
b. Forging
c. Casting
d. Welding

35. Rainbow has elliptical shape due to?

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Rare Fraction
d. None

36. When bullet is fired, which law is applied to riffle?

a. Newton’s 111rd law
b. Law of conservation
c. 156 law of thermodynamics
d. All of the above

37. A motorist moving in a straight direction he contains _______ energy?

a. Potential only
b. Kinetic + Potential Energy
c. Kinetic energy only
d. None

38. Sound travel is faster in?

a. Air
b. Vacuum
c. Cast Steel
d. Aluminum

39. Pilot tube is used to measure?

a. Velocity of a gas
b. Pressure of fluid
c. Quantify of flow
d. Velocity of fluid in open Channels

40. Air conditioning means?

a. To control the condition of air
b. To control the movement of air
c. To maintain pleasingness
d. All of the above

41. In motor vehicles which type of mirror used?

a. Concave
b. Convex
c. Both a and b
d. Plane

42. Why coolant is used in lathes?

a. To increase the cutting action
b. To decrease heat loss
c. To remove chips
d. All of the above

43. In simple indexing the crank movement is given by?

a. 24/N
b. 24/N+N/40
c. 40/N
d. 40/N = n1/N1 ± n2/N2

44. Usually shafts are made with?

a. Cast iron
b. H.S.S.
c. M. S
d. All of the above

45. Angle plates are used in conjunction with a ___ when holding  surface of the work piece should be kept horizontal?

a. Chuck
b. Face plate
c. Mandrel
d. Rests

46. Number of taps used for making a complete thread in the hole is?

a. Single tap only
b. Two taps
c. Three taps
d. None

47. Cutting edges of the reamers are called?

a. Lands
b. Flutes
c. Heal
d. All of the above

48. Slip gauges are sometimes used for accurate setting of the?

a. Tail stock
b. Carriage
c. Tool part
d. All of the above

49. Thermal stress in a bar is directly proportional to?

a. Its cross sectional area
b. It’s Volume
c. Change in temperature
d. None

50. Which type of radiation is liberating form the sun?

a. Fission
b. Fusion
c. Both A and B
d. None

51. Bar is measurement for?

a. Velocity
b. Temperature
c. Pressure
d. All of the above

52. Mechanical efficiency means?

a. Input/ Output
b. n stage/ n blade
c. Work done/Output
d. Output/Input

53. By combustion of fuel in cylinder chemical energy converted into?

a. Mechanical energy
b. Thermal Energy
c. Potential energy
d. Kinetic energy

54. Which type of refrigent is used in refrigerator?

a. Ammonia
b. Water
c. Freon
d. None

55. 20kgf.m. = _____ joules?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. None

56. Ladies voice is large than men’s, why?

a. Low pitch
b. Low amplitude
c. High pitch
d. High amplitude

57. For medium heads which type of turbine is suitable?

a. Kaplan turbine
b. Impulse turbine
d. Francis turbine
d. None

58. Jockey pulley is used to?

a. Increase the angle of contract
b. Decrease the angle of contact
c. a and b
d. None

59. What is the unit of strain?

a. N/mm2
b. N/m2
c. No unites
d. None

60. When two forces have equal magnitudes and angle between is 90° then what is the resultant?

a. P2
b. 2√p
c. √2 P
d. None

61. The melting point of the filler material in brazing should be above?

a. 420°
b. 600°
c. 800°C
d. 1000°C

62. Inconel is an alloy of?

a. Nickel-Chromium iron
b. Copper zinc-iron
c. Copper tin – iron
d. None

63. Primary is needed in?

a. Reciprocating pump
b. Gear pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. Diaphragm pump

64. Weld spatter defect in welding is generally the result of?

a. Using tool high welding current
b. Using tool low welding current
c. Both a and b
d. None

65. A tool used for removing broke n bolts and studs from a hole is known as?

a. Screw driver
b. Punch
c. Exy-put
d. Emry rod

66. Which of the following used as the wire for heating an element?

a. Invar
b. Niche chrome
c. Silver
d. None

67. Example for semisolid lubricant is?

a. Graphite powder
b. Greases
c. Mineral oil
d. All

68. For the same compression ratio the thermal efficiency of Otto, diesel and dual combustion cycle will be in the order?

a. Otto, Dual, Diesel
b. Otto, Diesel, Dual
c. A and b
d. None

69. Cable should be connected with appliances so that?

a. It has complete contract with other metallic part.
b. It has partial contact with other metallic part.
c. It doesn’t have any contact with other metallic part.
d. It has contact with more than one metallic part.

70. The solder used for soldering battery cable is made of?

a. Tin and lead
b. Copper and tin
c. Lead ad aluminum
d. Copper and Zinc

71. While soldering wire on a terminal solder should solidify rapidly?

a. To avoid cracking of terminals.
b. To avoid melting of terminals.
c. To avoid displacement of components being soldered.
d. To avoid over heating of other components.

72. Correct sequence of current flow in simple electric circuit is?

a. Load, switch, battery
b. Battery, switch load
c. Load, battery, switch
d. Switch, load, battery

73. In an open circuit the resistance is?

a. Very high
b. Very low
c. Infinite
d. No resistance

74. In a closed electrical circuit the current is?

a. Inversely proportional to voltage.
b. Directly proportional to resistance.
c. Inversely proportional to voltage and directly.
d. Directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance.

75. A cell is device consisting of?

a. One electrode
b. Tow electrodes
c. Three electrodes
d . Four electrodes

76. Vent holes are provided in wet cells?

a. To pour electrode.
b. To allow gases to escape during charging only.
c. To allow gases to escapees during charging and discharging.
d. To allow gases to escapes during discharging only.

77. Identify the secondary cell from the following?

a. Silver-oxide cell
b. Carbon-zinc cell
c. Lead acid cell
d. Lithium cell

78. Lead acid battery is?

a. An electro-mechanical device
b. An electrochemical device
c. An electrical device
d. A chemical device

79. While discharging the battery converts?

a. Mechanical energy into electrical energy.
b. Electrical energy into chemical energy.
c. Chemical energy into mechanical energy.
d. Chemical energy into electrical energy.

80. The level of the electrolyte in each cell above plates should be?

a. 1/8” to 1/4”
b.1/4” to 3/8”
c. 3/8’’ to 9/16”
d. 7/8” to 1”

81. The electrolyte used in lead acid batter is?

a. Nitric acid
b. Citric acid
c. Sulfuric acid
d. Hydrochloric acid

82. The number of turns in primary winding are?

a. 100-200 turns
b. 200 – 300 turns
c. 200-400 turns
d. 400-500 turns

83. The distributor rotates simultaneously along with the?

a. Water pump
b. Oil pump
c. Fuel pump
d. Vacuum pump

84. The spark plug is fitted on?

a. Cylinder
b. Cylinder Head
c. Crank case
d. Rocker cover

85. Distributer shaft is supported by?

a. Ball bearing
b. Shell bearing
c. Brush bearing
d. Needle bearing

86. Distributor cap is made of?

a. Bakelite
b. Fiber
c. Plastic
d. P.V.C.

87. The centrifugal advance mechanism advances the timing when fly weights?

a. Fly outward
b. Contract inward
c. Remain constant
d. Move upward

88. The dynamo used in automobiles is of?

a. Single pole
b. Two pole
c. Three pole
d. Five pole

89. Dynamo brushes are made of?

a. Copper
b. Brass
c. Carbon
d. Aluminium

90. In charging system the regulator acts as?

a. An automatic control
b. An electronic control
c. Manual control
d. A semi automatic control

91. When the dynamo voltage is more than the battery voltage, the voltage flows to the ?

a. Field winding
b. Shunt winding
c. Series winding
d. Armature winding

92. The oil pumps are generally driven by?

a. Camshaft
b. Rocker shaft
c. Crank shaft
d. Damper pulley

93. The symbol of P-N diode?

a. A C
b. A C
c. A C
d. A C

94. The output of rectifier constrains?

a. AC
b. DC
c. Both a & b
d. None

95. Transistor is a?

a. Current controlled device
b. Voltage controlled device
c. Power controlled device
d. All of the above

96. Which of the following circuit can operate class for audio output?

a. Emitter
b. Push pull
c. Cascade
d. None

97. Which of the following Semi-conductor is widely used?

a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Gallium
d. None

98. In which oscillator series combinations of capacitors are obtained?

a. Cali Pitts
b. Hardly
c. Crystal
d. Weighing bridge

99. The most widely used method of biasing is?

a. Fixed bias
b. Basic to collector bias
c. Self bias
d. None

100. Memory is measured in?

a. Bytes
b. Gytes
c. Mytes
d. None

Answers


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Sample Paper for RRB Exams (General Knowledge: Test-4)

Sample Paper for RRB Exams

Subject : General Knowledge (Test-4)

1. With which of the following area Anjolie Ela Mennon is related?

(A) Painting
(B) Music
(C) Drama
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these

2. With which of the following sport Vichung Bhutia is related?

(A) Volleyball
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Tennis
(E) None of these

3. At which of the following place the Ministerial Conference of W.T.O. was organized recently?

(A) Colombo
(B) Bali
(C) Kathmandu
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these

4. Who among the following was the leader of rebellious soldiers at Delhi during the Revolt of 1857 ?

(A) Maulavi Ahmadullah
(B) Bahadur Khan
(C) Kunwar Singh
(D) Bakht Khan
(E) None of these

5. Who was the first leader to organize Labour Movement in India?

(A) B.P. Wadia
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) N.M. Lokhande
(D) N.G. Ranga
(E) None of the above

6. Which of the following bays separates India from Sri Lanka?

(A) Bay of Mannar
(B) Bay of Maldives
(C) Bay of Ponnar
(D) Bay of Jaffna
(E) None of these

7. On which of the following rivers the Nizamsagar project is located in Andhra Pradesh?

(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Tungabhadra
(D) Periyar
(E) Manjara

8. In which of the following Indian States the Bandipur National Park exists?

(A) Gujarat
(B) Kama taka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following institution has celebrated its Diamond Jubilee recently?

(A) U.G.C.
(B) A.I.C.T.E.
(C) R.B.I.
(D) C.E.R.C
(E) None of these

10. Who of the following was the First Woman Central Minister?

(A) Shanta Rangaswamy
(B) V.S. Ramadevi
(C) Sucheta Kriplani
(D) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(E) None of these

11. Where is India’s First Mobile Police Station ‘is located?

(A) Sitapur
(B) Thane
(C) Hoshiarpur
(D) Bhuj
(E) None of these

12. At which of the following place Woodstock International School exists?

(A) Mussoorie
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shimla
(D) Darjiling
(E) None of these

13. To which of the following State the folk-dance ‘Yakshagaan’ is related?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) None of these

14. Which is not included in scope of Public Administration with ‘3M’ idea?

(A) Money
(B) Material
(C) Man
(D) Method
(E) None of the above

15. Which is included as a subject matter in Public Administration?

(A) Social Relevance/Realism
(B) Comprehensiveness
(C) Sensitivity of Policy
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above

16. Which country introduced "Performance Budget" in Municipal Administration ?

(A) France
(B) India
(C) Britain
(D) America
(E) China

17. Who appoints the Chief Secretary of State?

(A) Governor
(B) President
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Home Minister
(E) None of the above

18. Which Article of the Indian Constitution explains the functions of Chief Minister?

(A) Article - 164
(B) Article - 153
(C) Article -167
(D) Article - 157
(E) None of the above

19. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly according to the Cabinet Mission?

(A) 385
(B) 409
(C) 429
(D) 505
(E) 535

20. Who has the power to introduce an ordinance according to Indian Constitution?

(A) The President
(B) The Governor
(C) Supreme Court
(D) President and Governor Both
(E) None of the above

21. Who approves the Finance Bill in the Centre?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(E) None of the above

22. Children of which age group are to be provided free and compulsory education by the state according to the provision of the Constitution?

(A) 3-9 years
(B) 6-14 years
(C) 6-18 years
(D) 5-16 years
(E) None of the above

23. Which of the following states is called so because of the increasing importance of Public Administration in the working of these states?

(A) Democratic State
(B) Administrative State
(C) Laissez-faire State
(D) Popular State
(E) None of the above

24. A computer can only understand which language?

(A) Assembly language
(B) Machine language
(C) High level language
(D) C-language
(E) None of these

25. One Megabyte is equal to–

(A) 1024 bytes
(B) 1024 Kilobyte
(C) 1024 Gigabyte
(D) 1024 Terabyte
(E) None of these

26. The sum of average latency and seek time is known as–

(A) Average Hold time
(B) Average Delay time
(C) Average Access time
(D) Average Transfer time
(E) None of these

27. Which is not input device?

(A) Keyboard
(B) Light Pen
(C) Mouse
(D) Bar Code Reader
(E) None of these

28. Which is the extension of MS-Excel file?

(A) .xls
(B) .doc
(C) .bmp
(D) .jpg
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following constitute a food chain ?

(A) Grass, wheat and mango
(B) Grass, goat and human
(C) Goat, cow and elephant
(D) Grass, fish and goat
(E) None of these

30. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?

(A) Wood
(B) Gobar-gas
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Coal
(E) None of these

31. The device used for producing electric current is called a–

(A) Generator
(B) Galvanometer
(C) Ammeter
(D) Motor
(E) None of these

32. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?

(A) Ovary
(B) Uterus
(C) Vas deferens
(D) Fallopian tube
(E) None of these

33. The xylem in plants are responsible for–

(A) Transport of water
(B) Transport of food
(C) Transport of amino acids
(D) Transport of oxygen
(E) None of these

34. Kings of ten tribes fought the ‘Dashraj War’ in the Vedic Age against whom of the following?

(A) Raidasa
(B) Sudasa
(C) Somadasa
(D) Vipradasa
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following Mauryan Kings was the follower of Ajivika Sect?

(A) Chandragupta
(B) Bindusara
(C) Ashoka
(D) Dasharath
(E) None of these

36. Who among the following rulers of Mewar accepted Mughal suzerainty?

(A) Rana Udaysingh
(B) Rana Pratapsingh
(C) Rana Amarsingh
(D) Rana Karansingh
(E) None of these

37. By which of the following treaties, the Third Anglo-Mysore War was ended in 1792 A. D. ?

(A) Treaty of Srirangapattanam
(B) Treaty of Madras
(C) Treaty of Mangalore
(D) Treaty of Mysore (E) None of these

38. Who among the following was the pioneer of widow-remarriage movement in Bengal in the 19th century?

(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(C) Keshabchandra Sen
(D) Debendranath Tagore
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following is the oldest oil refining in India?

(A) Digboi
(B) Barauni
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Noonmati
(E) None of the above

40. Which mineral is Malajkhand known for?

(A) Gold
(B) Mica
(C) Silver
(D) Lead
(E) None of these

Answer key

1A 6A 11C 16D 21D 26C 31A 36C
2B 7E 12A 17C 22B 27E 32C 37A
3B 8B 13B 18C 23B 28A 33A 38B
4D 9A 14D 19A 24B 29B 34B 39A
5C 10D 15D 20D 25B 30C 35B 40E

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Sample Paper for RRB Exams (General Knowledge: Test-3)

Sample Paper for RRB Exams

Subject : General Knowledge (Test-3)

1. Which of the following is the leading producer of petroleum in India?

(A) Surma Valley
(B) Gandhar Field
(C) Naharkatia
(D) Maharatra

2. When was the first iron ore mining plant established in Bai-ladila?

(A) 1980
(B) 1963
(C) 1968
(D) 1974

3. Which mineral reserve deposit is there in Kudarvahi ?

(A) Iron-ore
(B) Lime Stone
(C) Dolomite
(D) Bauxite

4. In which tahsil Aridongri iron ore area is situated?

(A) Bhanupratapapur
(B) Narayanpur
(C) Orchha
(D) Kondagaon

5. Which of the following is the biggest sanctuary?

(A) Pamed
(B) Barnavapara
(C) Udanti
(D) Sitanadi

6. The tributary of Sabri river is–

(A) Kanger
(B) Paralkot
(C) Nandiraj
(D) None of these

7. Goncha festival of Bastar is celebrated in which month?

(A) Aashadh
(B) Kartik
(C) Sawan
(D) None of these

8. What is the language of traditional singing of Ghotul Pata in Bastar region?

(A) Lariya
(B) Hindi
(C) Gondi
(D) Halbi

9. On which day of the Hindu calendar, the ‘Putra Putri’ marriage (wedding of dolls) is organized?

(A) Magh Purnima
(B) Kartik Shukla Ekadashi
(C) Janmashtami
(D) Vaishakh Shukla Tritiya

10. What is ,the GSOP Growth Rate Target for the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17) fixed by the State Government?

(A) 10.00 per cent
(B) 8.80 per cent
(C) 9.00 per cent
(D) 11.00 per cent

11. What is the language of singing Ohankul Jagar in Bastar region?

(A) Lariya
(B) Hindi
(C) Halbi
(D) Sargujiha

12. Salphi is popular as what in tribal region ?

(A) Drink
(B) Animal
(C) Agricultural implement
(D) A variety of Paddy

13. What does Dhumkuria mean in Oraon tribe?

(A) Shrine
(B) Chief’s house
(C) Youth dormitory
(D) Path

14. What is the meaning of the word ‘Kos’ ?

(A) Kosa cloth
(B) Bronze vessel
(C) Book of Terms
(D) Measurement of distance

15. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Thermal Power Plant is located in–

(A) Kawardha
(B) Ambikapur
(C) Korba (West)
(D) Korba (East)

16. Gopad river flows from–

(A) Koriya
(B) Surajpur
(C) Balrampur
(D) Surguja-Balrampur

17. Chhangbhakhar hill is situated in–

(A) Koriya
(B) Balrampur
(C) Jashpur
(D) Surguja

18. Tributary of Mahanadi is–

(A) Kharoon
(B) Maniyari
(C) Arpa
(D) Kelo

19. Which Amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the municipalities?

(A) 70th
(B) 72nd
(C) 73rd
(D) 74th

20. Which of the following place was not the capital of Kalchuris ?

(A) Tripuri
(B) Tumman
(C) Jajallapur
(D) Ratanpur

21. Rajirn Kumbh Mela concludes on which day?

(A) Ramnavarni
(B) Akshaya Tritiya
(C) Mahashivaratri
(D) Kartik Purnima

22. Which of the following persons has not received National ‘Shilp Guru’ Award?

(A) Jaidev Baghel
(B) Sonabai
(C) Sundaribai
(D) Govindram jhara

23. Where is Indira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya situated?

(A) Delhi
(B) Bhopal
(C) Maihar
(D) None of these

24. Which of these is not related to Dhankul recitation?

(A) Earthen Vessel
(B) Bow
(C) Winnowing fan
(D) None of these

25. Which Art form has been indicated in the Jogimara cave inscription of Ramgarh ?

(A) Coockery
(B) Sculpting
(C) Acting
(D) Hair Dressing

26. Establishment of Ashram Schools in Tribal area was started in–

(A) 1990-91
(B) 2000-2001
(C) 2010-2011
(D) 2012-13

27. What is the name of special scheme for education and over-all development of students of Naxal-affected areas of C.G. Govt. ?

(A) Chief Minister’s Child Security Scheme
(B) Girls Education Incentive Scheme
(C) Scheme related to higher education facility to talented students
(D) Post matric scholar ship

28. Which of the following vitamins is deficient in night blindness disease?

(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin K

29. 12th Schedule of Indian Constitution is related to–

(A) Zila Panchayat
(B) Urban Bodies
(C) Nagar Panchayat
(D) Janpad Panchayat

30. The taxation power of Urban bodies is provided by–

(A) State Government
(B) Urban Administration
(C) Finance Department
(D) Finance Commission

31. Who prepares the development plan for entire District?

(A) State Government
(B) District Statistical Officer
(C) District Planning Committee
(D) Urban Development Authority

32. In which Article of the Constitution the structure of local bodies is provided ?

(A) Article 243 (ग) and Article 243 (द)
(B) Article 243 (क) and Article 243 (घ)
(C) Article 223 (ख) and Article 223 (च)
(D) Article 223 (क) and Article 223 (घ)

33. Who led the strike of B.N.C. Mill workers of Rajnandgaon in 1920 which lasted for 37 days?

(A) Thakur Pyarelal Singh
(B) Madhavrao Sapre
(C) Qutubuddin
(D) Abdul Rauf

34. Population of a city is 17,200. First year it increased by 35% than second year it reduced by 15%. What will be the population of the city after 2 years?

(A) 14,000
(B) 12,900
(C) 19,737
(D) 16,527

35. Which of the following States has the largest iron ore reserves?

(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Karnataka
(D) Odisha

36. ‘Right to Education’ introduced through 86th Amendment came into force–

(A) In 2002
(B) In 2004
(C) In 2008
(D) In 2010

37. Council of Minister is collectively responsible to whom?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha

38. When did the Protection of Human Rights Act come into force in India ?

(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993

39. The state having highest literacy rate as per 2011 Census is–

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Mizoram

40. In which Vedic text the term ‘Varna’ is found referred for the first time?

(A) Rigveda
(B) Atharvaveda
(C) Samveda
(D) Yajurveda

Answer key

1D 6D 11C 16D 21C 26A 31C 36D
2C 7D 12A 17A 22C 27A 32A 37D
3D 8D 13C 18B 23D 28C 33A 38D
4A 9D 14D 19D 24D 29B 34C 39D
5D 10A 15D 20C 25B 30A 35D 40A

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Sample Paper for RRB Exams (General Knowledge: Test-2)

Sample Paper for RRB Exams

Subject : General Knowledge (Test-2)

1. Who won Australian Open mixed doubles final 2015 ?

(A) Martina Hingis (Switzer-land) and Leander Paes (India)
(B) Kristina Mladenovic (France) and Daneal Nester (Canada)
(C) Djokovic (Serbia) and Serena Williams (US)
(D) Murray (UK) and Maria Sharapova (Russia)

2. Which of the following is not included in core industries?

(A) Automobile
(B) Fertilizers
(C) Steel
(D) Cement

3. Who said, "India is the bright spot on the cloudy global horizon" ?

(A) IMF Chief Christine Lagarde
(B) World Bank Chief Dr. Jim Yong Kim
(C) UNO Secretary General Ban Ki-Moon
(D) US President Barack Obama

4. Consider the following facts about ‘Sukanya Sammridhhi Accounts’–

I. The scheme was announced by PM Modi as a part of Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao campaign launched on January 22, 2015 at Panipat (Haryana).
II. Any guardian of a girl aged upto 10 years can open an account either in a post office or a bank.
III. The maturity period is 21yrs of the age of the girl.

The correct code is–

(A) I and II are correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) All are correct
 

5. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) effective from January 7, 2015, has been reduced from 22.0. per cent to–

(A) 21.5 per cent
(B) 21.0 per cent
(C) 20.5 per cent
(D) No change

6. Surplus on account of services exports financial ……….per cent of merchandise trade deficit in 2013-14.

(A) 49.4%
(B) 51.2%
(C) 56.2%
(D) None of the above

7. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) WPI based inflation in February 2015 was (–) 2.06%
(B) CPI based inflation was four-month high in February 2015 at 5.37%
(C) WPI based inflation in February 2014 was (+) 5.03%
(D) A large part of the gap in inflation rate comes on account of different weightages in fuels in two indicies

8. The size of the Indian economy in 2014-15 is–

(A) Rs. 126 lakh crore
(B) Rs. 175lakh crore
(C) Rs. 180 lakh crore
(D) Rs. 200 lakh crore

9. As per the advanced estimates released by the CSO the per capita income is projected to Rs. ……….in 2014-15.

(A) 75500
(B) 88533
(C) 92423
(D) 102365

10. Consider the following statements and chose the correct code given below–

Statement I– India’s share in global exports of commercial services increased to 3.2 per cent in 2013 from 1.2 per cent in 2000.
Statement II– India’s ranking in global exports of commercial services in 2013 was sixth.

Codes–

(A) Only I is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) Only II is correct
(D) Neither I nor II

11. Which of the following is mismatched in relation to Stree Shakti Puraskar 2015?

(A) Anyay Rahit Zindagia NGO -Devi Ahilyabai Holkar Award
(B) Seema Prakash -Rani Laxamibai Award
(C) Asha Sansthan NGO -Kannagi Award
(D) Chandraprabha Bokey -Mata Jijabai Award

12. As per the latest data released by the CSO projected growth of Indian economy in 2014-15–

(A) 7.1 per cent
(B) 7.2 per cent
(C) 7.3 per cent
(D) 7.4 per cent

13. As per the new methodology, developed by the CSO, which of the following sectors has registered a growth rate of over 7 per cent–

(A) Trade, hotels, transport, communication and services related to broadcasting
(B) Financial, real estate and professional services
(C) Public administration, defence and Other Services
(D) All of the above

14. According to world travel and tourism council the total employment in tourism sector in 2013 is about–

(A) 240 million
(B) 266 million
(C) 310 million
(D) 375 million

15. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched India’s first indigenously developed ……….vaccine on March 9, 2015.

(A) Rotavirus
(B) Oral Polio
(C) Influenza
(D) Oral Typhoid

16. The Indian, who won the Crammy Award 2015 in the new age album category is–

(A) Musician Ricky Kej
(B) Musician A. R. Rehman
(C) Singer Kavita Krishanan Murthy
(D) Auther Neela Vaswani

17. An Indian named ……….won Grammy award 2015 in the Best Children’s Album category.

(A) Neela Vaswani
(B) Meera Nair
(C) Chitra Mudgal
(D) Anoushka Shankar

18. Services’ share in employment in India in 2011-12 was–

(A) 28.5%
(B) 24.4%
(C) 56%
(D) 70%

19. Consider the following sources of revenue for Union Government–

I. Surcharges on direct/ indirect taxes.
II. Cess levied for specific purposes.
III. Collection

Revenue of then is not shared with the states.

(A) Only I
(B) Only II, III
(C) I, II and III
(D) None of the above

20. Recently a term ‘Pocket’ was in the news; it refers as–

(A) A real estate site developed in Mumbai
(B) A ticketing system introduced by Delhi Metro
(C) An e-wallet launched by largest private sector bank ICICI
(D) None of the above

21. Which of the following committees recommended the abolition of Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) ?

(A) T. K. Viswanathan Committee
(B) Deepak Parikh Committee
(C) Dr. C. Rangarajan Committee
(D) None of the above

22. India’s emergence as one of the fastest growing consultancy markets worldwide is largely attributable to–

(A) Increased investment activities due to liberalisation of FDI
(B) Entry of many new players in Indian Market
(C) Low cost of sourcing (D) All of the above

23. The Finance Minister has set targets to reduce fiscal deficit, as per cent of GDP. Which of the following is not correct ?

(A) 3.9% for 2015-16
(B) 3.5% for 2016-17
(C) 3.0% for 2017-18
(D) 2.5% for 2018-19

24. Consider the following facts about National Judicial Appointments Commission–

I. The NJAC will look after the appointment and transfer the judges of the supreme court and the High Courts.
II. The NJAC will be headed by the Chief Justice of India.
III. Two senior most Judges of  the Supreme Court, Union Law Minister and two reputed persons will be the members of NJAC.
IV. Among the two members, selected by a high powered committee, one must be SC / ST / OBC /Minority /Women.

The correct code is–

(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) II, III and IV are correct
(C) I, III and IV are correct
(D) All are correct

25. Which of the following statements is correct about the amendment done in January, 2015 citizenship Act 1955–

(A) The PIO card holders can now be notified as Overseas citizens of India
(B) Henceforth the PIO card holders will also be eligible for life long VISA
(C) Children, grand children of Indian citizens residing in foreign countries can now be registered as OCI
(D) All of the above

26. Volume of internal trade and repair sector in India is about–

(A) Rs. 11.5 lakh crore
(B) Rs. 12.5 lakh crore
(C) Rs. 18.5 lakh crore
(D) Rs. 22.5 lakh crore

27. Consider the following facts–

I. Agriculture incomes are under stress.
II. Investment in Infrastructure is low
III. Manufacturing sector’s share in the GDP has declined from 18% to 17% of GDP
IV. Manufacturing exports have remained stagnant at about 10% of GDP

Which of the above has/have been declared as major challenge by Finance Minister?

(A) I and II
(B) III and IV
(C) I, II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV

28. How many countries are the members of Euro Zone, as on January 2015 ?

(A) 17
(B) 18
(C) 19
(D) 20

29. Fair and remunerative price for sugar-cane has been declared by the central government for crushing session 2015-16–

(A) Rs. 230 per quintal
(B) Rs. 240 per quintal
(C) Rs. 250 per quintal
(D) Rs. 260 per quintal

30. India is world’s ……….largest TV. Market in world.

(A) second
(A) third
(C) fourth
(D) fifth

31. Two thirds of India’s population is below–

(A) 30 years of age
(B) 35 years of age
(C) 40 years of age
(D) 45 years of age

32. Which of the following pair is mismatched?

(A) Chairman-cum-CMD of BSNL-Anupam Srivastava
(B) Chairman Railway Board-A. K. Mittal
(C) Chairman ISRO-A. S. Kiran Kumar
(D) Chairperson HDFC-Usha Thorat

33. Which of the following statement is wrong about Members of Parliament Local Area development Scheme?

(A) It was launched on December 23, 1993 by Government of India
(B) An amount of Rs. 5 crore is allotted to each Member of Lok Sabha only
(C) 2 per cent of the MPLAD fund are allowed to district / state authorities for their administrative expenses
(D) MP can spend a maximum of Rs. 10 lakh per year for the distribution of tri-cycles/ motorized tri-cycles/battery operated motorized wheel chairs and artificiallimbs to physically challenged persons
 

34. India’s Contribution to commulative Global CO2 emmission is about–

(A) 10.7%
(B) 4.4%
|(C) 7.4%
(D) 2.8%

35. Vision of ‘Team India’ includes–

(A) ‘Housing for All’ by 2022
(B) Electrification, by 2020, of the remaining 20,000 villages
(C) Connecting each of the 1,78,000 unconnected habitations by all weather roads
(D) All of the above

36. Which of the following countries is not amongst top four countries of Import to India?

(A) USA
(B) UAE
(C) UK
(D) China

37. India is not a member of–

(A) APTA
(B) MERCOSUR
(C) BIMSTEC
(D) SAFTA

38. Consider List-I and List-Il and chose the correct code given below–

List-I (Sectors)
(a) Industry (b) Transport
(c) Electricity and Heat production (d) Buildings

List-II (Global Green House Gases)

Emissions from different sectors in 2010)

1. 6.4%
2. 25.0%
3. 21.0%
4. 14.0%
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1

39. In budget 2015-16 speech, the Finance Minister has announced the year ……….will be Amrut Mahotsav.

(A) 2019
(B) 2020
(C) 2021
(D) 2022

40. Which of the following are the brand ambassadors of India ?

(A) Tea and Spices
(B) Tea and Coffee
(C) Coffee and Spices
(D) Tea and Rubber

Answer Key

1A 6A 11C 16A 21A 26A 31B 36C
2A 7D 12D 17A 22D 27D 32D 37B
3A 8A 13D 18A 23D 28C 33B 38B
4D 9B 14B 19C 24D 29A 34D 39D
5A 10B 15A 20C 25D 30B 35D 40A

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Sample Paper for RRB Exams (General Knowledge: Test-1)

Sample Paper for RRB Exams

Subject : General Knowledge (Test-1)

1. Who has been named ICC World Cup 2015 Ambassador?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Allan Robert Border
(C) Sir Isaac Vivian Alexander Richards
(D) Sanath Teran Jayasuriya

2. Central statistics Office has revised the base year of consumer Price Index–

(A) from 2010 = 100 to 2012 = 100
(B) from 2004 – 05 = 100 to 2011-12 = 100
(C) from 2004–05 = 100 to 2012-13 = 100
(D) From 2010 = 100 to 2014 = 100

3. Which of the following is associated with the protection and development of women?

(A) CEDAW
(B) PWDVA
(C) BBBP
(D) All of the above

4. Bombay stock exchange is going to establish a Global Stock Exchange at–

(A) Gandhinagar (Gujarat)
(B) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(C) New Delhi
(D) Jaipur (Rajasthan)

5. India’s first Hi-Speed Rural Broadband Network -NOFN has been commissioned in–

(A) Vaishali district Bihar
(B) Vidisha district, Madhya Pradesh
(C) Idukki district, Kerala
(D) Kannauj district, Uttar Pradesh

6. Wholesale Price Index based inflation rate was reported (–) 2.06 per cent in February 2015.

Which of the following factors played a key role in contain demand pressure?

(A) Tight monetary policy adopted by RBI
(B) Huge buffer stocks against any external shock
(C) Volatility in the value of rupee under check
(D) All of the above

7. Average age in India is highest in the state of during 2001-2011.

(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Punjab

8. Maternal mortality in India now (2014) accounts for ……….of all deaths and ……….of all female deaths in the 15 to 49 years age group.

(A) 0.55% and 4%
(B) 2.54% and 6.5%
(C) 3.21% and 7.3%
(D) 4.25% and 8.9 %

9. India’s bilateral trade with China in 2014 remained to the tune of–

(A) $ 65 billion
(B) $ 70 billion
(C) $ 80 billion
(D) $ 85 billion

10. Which of following factors helped moderate headline inflation during 2014?

(A) Persistent decline in crude prices
(B) Softness in global prices of tradables
(C) Softness in global prices of edible oils and coal
|(D) All of the above

11. Which of the following geographical region of India is ahead in demographic transition?

(A) Northern Region
(B) Southern Region
(C) Eastern Region
(D) Western Region

12. Which of the following changes has not been made in the monetary policy w.e.f. January 15, 2015 ?

(A) Repo rate has been reduced from 8.00 per cent to 7.75 per cent
(B) Reverse Repo rate has been reduced from 7.00 per cent to 6.75 per cent
(C) Bank Rate has been reduced from 9.00 per cent to 8.75 per cent
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio has been increased from 4.00 per cent to 4.25 per cent

13. RBI’s deadline to exchange pre-2005 currency notes is–

(A) January 1, 2015
(B) April 1, 2015
(C) March 31, 2015
(D) June 30, 2015

14. What is ‘Pink Sheet’ ?

(A) IMF’s Data sheet on current account deficits
(B) RBI’s Monetary Policy norms
(C) World Bank Commodities Price Data
(D) None of the above

15. Which of the following statement is wrong about AYUSH ?

(A) Ayush represents Indian System of Medicine
(B) It includes Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturapathy, Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy
(C) Department of Ayush has been elevated to full-fledged ministry from 9 November, 2014
(D) Ayush is a part of National Health Mission

16. The cricketer, who scored fastest century-in just 31 balls-in one day international test match is–

(A) South African batsman AB de Villiers
(B) Pakistani batsman Shahid Afridi
(C) West Indian batsman Corey Anderson
(D) Indian Batsman Yuva Raj Singh

17. Consider the following statements, based on a Mckinsey report, and choose the correct code given below–
Statement

1. India’s 29 states, eight high performing ones in terms of GDP per capita will account for over half the GDP growth in the coming decade.
II. 49 metropolitan clusters in 183 districts, most of them in the west and the south, will account for 77 per cent of India’s GDP growth.

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) I and II are correct
(D) Neither I nor II is correct

18. S. Mahendra Dev Committee has observed that the terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture during 2004-05 and 2013-14–

(A) Has been favourable for agriculture
(B) Has been unfavourable for agriculture
(C) Has not changed
(D) Has been inconclusive in nature

19. Project ‘Maryadaa’ is associated’ with–

(A) Education of girls
(B) Making the village open defecation free
(C) Making all the women of the village educated and self-reliant
(D) None of the above

20. Who has been named the brand ambassador of the campaign ‘Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao: programme launched in January 2015 ?

(A) Rekha
(B) Madhuri Dixit
(C) Hema Malini
(D) Kareena Kapoor

21. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the ‘Beti Bachao-Beti Parhao’ programme on January 22, 2015 from–

(A) Panipat, Haryana
(B) Cwalior, Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bikaner, Rajasthan
(D) Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh

22. Which of the following factor / factors has/have created demand pressure on protein items and eggs, meat and fish ?

I. Substantial increases in minimum support prices of food grains.
II. Launch of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
III. High growth rates in rural income / wages.

The correct code is–

(A) Only III is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct

23. Mawlynnong Village in Meghalaya is in the news recently. The reason being–

(A) It has been awarded the Asia’s Cleanest village award in 2014-15
(B) All the houses in the village have sanitary toilet
(C) All the houses in the Village use clean energy for cooking
(D) The village is situated on Indo-Bangladesh border

24. What is so uncommon about ‘Mann Ki Baat’ ?

(A) Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi and the US President Mr. Barack Obama shared their thoughts together on fourth episode of ‘Mann ki Baat’ on All India
(B) The first Mann Ki Baat programme was broadcast on the occasion of Vijayadashami on October 3, 2014
(C) The second Mann Ki Baat programme was broadcast on November 2, 2014
(D) The third Mann Ki Baat programme was broadcast on December 14, 2014

25. Which of the following districts have been shortlisted for the United Nations global award for public service?

(A) Gaya, Bihar
(B) Chittur, Andhra Pradesh
(C) Nadia, West Bengal
(D) Rameshwaram, Tamil Nadu

26. The revamped National Food Security Mission is being implemented from 2014-15 in–

(A) 619 districts of 28 states
(B) 640 districts of 29 states
(C) 540 districts of 22 states
(D) 200 districts of 11 states

27. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) Certificate of Deposit is issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks
(B) Commercial paper is issued by Companies
(C) Recurring Deposite Schemes are operationalise only in Post Offices
(D) KDR is a time Deposits scheme of Canara Bank

28. Recently a high level committee under the chairmanship of……….has suggested to downsize the coverage of population under National Food Security Act from current 67 per cent to 40 per cent.

(A) Shanta Kumar
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Deepak Parikh
(D) Ashok Gulati

29. US President Barack Obarna specifically mentioned three Indians in his address at Delhi’s SIRI Fort Audotorium on January 27, 2015. Who amongst the following is not in them ?

(A) Film Star Shah Rukh Khan
(B) Athlete Milkha Singh
(C) Nobel Laureate Kailash Satyarthi
(D) Space scientist Kasturi Rangan

30. Certain initiatives were announced in budget 2014-15 for the sustainability and adoptability of Indian agriculture.

I. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
II. Neeranchal.
III. The national adaptation fund for climate change.
IV. Soil health card to every former.

The correct code is –

(A) Only I and II are correct
(B) Only II and III are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct

31. What is MUDRA?

(A) A form of Money
(B) A port on West Coast
(C) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency
(D) None of the above

32. Recently R. K. Laxaman died on January 26, 2015. He was a leading of India.

(A) Play Back Singer
(B) Cartoonist
(C) Space Scientist
(D) Kathakali dancer

33. Base year for the estimation of national income has been changed from–

(A) 1999-2000 to 2009-10
(B) 2004-05 to 2009-10
(C) 2004-05 to 2011-12
(D) 2004-05 to 2012-13

34. Economic cost of food grains to the food corporation consists of–

I. Minimum support price including bonus.
II. Procurement incidentals.
III. Cost of distribution.
The correct code is–

(A) Only I is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) II and III are correct

35. Which of the following companies tied themselves with CII to set up smart cities?

(A) Hitachi India and Siemens
(B) L&T and Reliance Industries
(C) Tata sons and BHEL
(D) None of the above

36. As per the latest estimates of national income which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) GDP at factor cost has now been done away with
(B) GDP at market prices will be the basis for ascertaining national income
(C) The Indian economy recorded 6. 9 per cent growth in 2013-14
(D) Henceforth Gross Value Added (GVA) will replace GDP at factor cost
 

37. Which one is the top most banking brand of the world ?

(A) HSBC (UK)
(B) China Construction Bank (China)
(C) Wells Forgo (US)
(D) HCBC (China)

38. India has emerged as a significant agre-exporter in a few crops/ products. Which of the following group of crops I products is not in this list?

(A) Cotton and Rice
(B) Meat and oil meals
(C) Wheat and Eggs
(D) Pepper and Sugar

39. Using India’s new GDP series, the IMF expects growth to pick up ……….per cent in 2014-15.

(A) 6.5%
(B) 7.2%
(C) 7.5%
(D) 7.9%

40. Which of the following is India’s top most banking brand?

(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) SBI
(D) Bank of Baroda

Answer key

1A 6D 11B 16A 21A 26A 31C 36D
2A 7A 12D 17C 22D 27C 32B 37C
3D 8A 13D 18A 23A 28A 33C 38C
4A 9B 14C 19B 24A 29D 34C 39B
5C 10D 15D 20B 25C 30D 35A 40C

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(Model Paper - 2) RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (TTE)

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(Model Paper - 2) RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam (TTE)

1. ?Abhinav Bharat? was organized by

(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these

2. On 22nd December, which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night ?

(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Chennai

3. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ?Horse Latitudes? lies between

(a) 00 and 150
(b) 200 and 250
(c) 300 and 350
(d) None of these

4. Zimbobwe was formerly known as

(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar

5. Which of the following pairs is correct ?

(a) Bonn - Danube
(b) Baghdad - Tigris
(c) Rome - Seice
(d) Paris - Tibe

6. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is

(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) None of these

7. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth ?

(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti

8. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river

(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab

9. The Shompens are the tribal people of

(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these

10. Match the following

A. Manas            I. Hangul
B. Dachigam       II. Elephant
C. Mudumalai     III. Tiger
D. Kaziranga       IV. Rhinoceros

    A     B         C         D
(a) I     II         III       IV
(b) III   I         II         IV
(c) II    IV      III         I
(d) I     III      IV         II

11. In India, Plan holiday was after

(a) China-India war of 1962
(b) Draught of 1966
(c) Pakistan war of 1971
(d) Pakistan war of 1965

12. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ?

(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum

13. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is

(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600

12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?

(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45

13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are graduates ?

(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300

14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?

(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari

15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territories may be established by the

(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of State
(d) Chief Justice of India

16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India ?

(a) M. C. Setalvad
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B. N. Rau

17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of architecture first developed in

(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany

18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in

(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay-Karnataka
(d) East Bengal

19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ?

(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai Khidmatgars
(d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu

20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is

(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh

21. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(a) Gulbarga - Karnataka
(b) Midnapur - Gujarat
(c) Wardha - Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin - Tamil Nadu

22. U Thant Award is given for

(a) Contribution to east-west understanding
(b) Community leadership
(c) Social service
(d) Journalism

23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of

(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia

24. The first electric railway was opened in

(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925

25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?

(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(c) Golf
(d) None of these

26. ?The Lord of Rings : The Return of the King? won Oscar award in how many categories ?

(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12

27. As per Census 2001, which of the following States has the lowest density of population ?

(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram

28. Which of the following is the latest Tank ?

(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim

29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?

(a) Encephalitis - Brain
(b) Colitis - Colon
(c) Hepatitis - Liver
(d) Jaundice - Throat

30. Which of the following type of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum products ?

(a) Rayan Silk
(b) Terelyne
(c) Nylon
(d) Cotton

31. The function of haemoglobin in the body is

(a) Transport of oxygen
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anemia
(d) Utilization of iron

32. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population ?

(a) Lung?s disease
(b) Cirrhasis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer

33. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops ?

(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these

34. Which one of the following grows under the tree ?

(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor

35. Which of the following is an example of a plant that bears seeds but not fruits ?

(a) Cotton Plant
(b) Peepal tree
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree

36. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is

(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium

37. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is

(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted

38. In increasing sequence, the major elements present in the human body are

(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron

39. A light sensitive compound used in photography is

(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide

40. Protective foods in our diet are

(a) Fats and vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates and minerals
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Proteins and carbohydrates

41. The ancient name of Bengal was

(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(c) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi

42. Ahilyabai was the queen of

(a) Gwaliar
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur

43. Morish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of

(a) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(b) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(c) Balban
(d) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq

44. The relics of Indus Valley Civilisation indicates that the main occupation of the people was

(a) Agriculture
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Commerce
(d) Hunting

45. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the king of ????????. Dynasty

(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallava
(d) Kushana

46. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in

(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855

47. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called

(a) Mahabhiniskraman
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mahamastakabhisheka
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan

48. The political and cultural center of the Pandyas was

(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram

49. What is the correct chronological order of the dynasties in which they invaded India ?

1. Huns
2. Kushanas
3. Aryans
4. Greeks

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

50. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law ?

(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghvarsa
(c) Vijnaneswara
(d) Kumban

51. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a consequence of

(a) Chalukya raids
(b) Greek invasion
(c) Hun invasion
(d) Pallava raids

52. Who founded the Hindu Shahi dynasty of Punjab ?

(a) Vasumitra
(b) Kallar
(c) Jayapala
(d) Mahipala

53. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was posed by the

(a) Mughals
(b) Afghans
(c) Iranians
(d) None of these

54. Who among the following was a leading exponent of Gandhian thoughts ?

(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) M. N. Roy
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

55. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial Mauryas in Magadha ?

(a) Kushanas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Sungas

56. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of

(a) Ajatashatru
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Nandivardhan
(d) Uday

57. Jahangiri Mahal is located in

(a) Delhi
(b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Sikandara

58. The percentage of glucose present in the normal urine is

(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 0%

59. The magnetic effect of electric current was first observed by

(a) Henry
(b) Oersted
(c) Faraday
(d) Volta

60. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately

(a) 4.5%
(b) 2.7%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 5.8%

61. The black hole theory was discovered by

(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Gobind Khorana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujan

62. The main contribution of the Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in

(a) Systematic provincial administration
(b) A well planned revenue system
(c) A well organized central government
(d) An organized local self government

63. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga ?

(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya

64. Which of the following battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler of India ?

(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa

65. ?The Vedas contain all the truth? was interpreted by

(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Swami Shraddhanand
(d) S. Radhakrishnan

66. Babur entered India for the first time from the west through

(a) Kashmir
(b) Sind
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan

67. Which was the first among the following ?

(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government

68. The name of Lord Cornwallis is associated with the

(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary
(d) Permanent settlement

69. Sir Charles Wood?s Despatch of 1854 delat with

(a) Administrative reforms
(b) Social reforms
(c) Economic reforms
(d) Educational reforms

70. The sea route to India was discovered by the

(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French

71. Which of the following pairs is correct ?

(a) Ashvaghosa - Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan
(c) Harisena - Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa - Samudragupta

72. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because

(a) Battle of Plassey started
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence

73. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year

(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 192
(d) 1923

74. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts ?

(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these

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(Model Paper - 1) RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam - "Technical Aptitude"

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(Model Paper- 1) RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam

Technical Aptitude

1. The Tractor braking system is of

a) Mechanical type
b) Hydraulic type
c) Pneumatic type
d) Electrical type

2. The Power input of 1 ton air conditioner is

a) 1kw
b) 1.6kw
c) 2.4kw
d) 2.6kw

3. The refrigerator has a cooling capacity of 750 kcal/m. Its capacity in tons of refrigeration is equal to

a) 7.5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30

4. The color code of refrigerator Ammonia is

a) Orange
b) White
c) Light blue
d) Green

5. The head used to remove any previous recording from the tape is

a) Recording head
b) Erasing head
c) Play back head
d) Running head

6. A Knee is a part of

a) Lathe
b) Milling machine
c) Jig boring machine
d) Grinding

7. Files are made of

a) H.S.S
b) C.I.
c) M.S.
d) None of these

8. The non ferrous metal with the lowest melting point is

a) Aluminum
b) Copper
c) Lead
d) Tin

9. The Front clearance angle of turning tool is maintained between

a) 3 0 to 4 0
b) 8 0 to 12 0
c) 15 0 to 18 0
d) 22 0 to 25 0

10. The number of Guide ways provided on the lathe bed is

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Six

11. The formula for cutting speed in meter/minute for turning a job of diameter 0 mm is given by

a) πDN/100 meter/min
b) πDN/1000 meter/min
c) π/1000 meter/min
d) None of these

12. Mandrel is a

a) Work holding device
b) Supporting device
c) a & b
d) None

13. The following tool is used of r boring a deep hole

a) Drill
b) Reamer
c) Boring bit
d) Augur bit

14. Power Hack-saw blade cuts the material during

a) Return stroke
b) Forward stroke
c) a & b
d) None

15. For gear cutting operation the type of milling used is

a) End milling
b) Face milling
c) Side milling
d) Slit Milling

16. Open and cross belt device quick return motion mechanism is used in

a) Horizontal shaper
b) Vertical Shaper
c) Slotter
d) Planner

17. In Direct Indexing the indexing plate used rotating the job spidle is provided with

a) 44 holes
b) 20 holes
c) 24 holes
d) None of these

18. One watt-hour is equal to

a) 36000 joules
b) 3000 joules
c) 3600 joules
d) None of these

19. Otto cycle is also known as

a) Bell Coleman Cycle
b) Carnot Cycle
c) Constant Volume Cycle
d) Sterling Cycle

20. The brake thermal efficiency and mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine are 50% and 70% respectively. The indicator thermal efficiency is

a) 20%
b) 70%
c) 60%
d) 80%

21. The king pin is indeed

a) Back wards
b) Front wards
c) Out wards
d) In wards

22. The grade of lubricant used in gear box is

a) SAX 30
b) SAE 40
c) SAE 90
d) SAE 150

23. The number of piles provided for a truck tyre is

a) 10
b) 20
c) 25
d) 15

24. Propeller Shaft takes the drive from

a) Clutch
b) Flywheel
c) Gear box
d) Differential

25. Petrol engine uses the following thermodynamic cycle

a) Carnot Cycle
b) Sterling Cycle
c) Otto Cycle
d) None

26. In gear ration between the starter pinion and the fly wheel ring gear is

a) 8
b) 1:12
c) 1:16
d) 1:25

27. For measuring the ovality of the cylinder bore the gauge used is

a) Dial Indicator
b) Plug gauge
c) Micro meter
d) Compression gauge

28. The crank shaft made of

a) Aluminum alloy
b) Cast Iron
c) Steel
d) Forged steel alloy

29. The composition of petrol fuel is approximately given as

a) 60% carbon, 40% hydrogen
b) 75% carbon, 25% hydrogen
c) 85%carbon, 15% hydrogen
d) 95% carbon, 5% hydrogen

30. The lubricating oil pump develops a pressure of

a) 1 to 2 kg/cm2
b) 3 to 5 kg/cm2
c) 5 to 8 kg/cm2
d) 8 to 10 kg/cm2

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(Model Paper) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam

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(Model Paper) RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam

                                                                                           General knowledge, Reasoning, Arithmetic


1. A lunar eclipse occurs when?
a. The moon comes between the sun and the earth.
b. The earth comes between the Sun and the moon.
c. The Sun comes between the earth and the moon.
d. None.
2. Who introduced famous 20 point input-output programme?
a. Rajiv Gandhi b. Indira Gandhi
c. P.V.Narasimha Rao d. None
3. The Nanvakkal is famous in?
a. Sericulture b. Piggory
c. Poultry d. None
4. How many bones are in the adult human skeleton?
a. 205 b. 206 c. 207 d. 212
5. The Agricultural University is it?
a. Coimbatore b. Salem c. Sivaganga d. None
6. In Tamil Nadu Bird Sanctuary is situated at?
a. Mudumalai b. Vedanthangal
c. Mundanthurai d. None
7. The famous lion reserve is situated at?
a. Gir sanctuary b. Hazaribagh Park
c. Corbett Park d. None
8. Who out of the following had abolished Zajiya on Hindus?
a. Aurangzeb b. Jahangir c. Shah Jahan d. Akbar
9. Sound cannot travel through?
a. Vacuum b. Hydrogen gas c. Water d. Steel
10. Which planet is the nearest to the Sun?
a. Earth b. Venus c. Pluto d. Mercury
11. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?
a. Pellagra b. Small-pox c. Filariasis d. None
12. The density of water is higher at?
a. 4° C b. 0°C c. -4°C d. -273°C
13. Which one of the following regulates & co-ordinates the group
movement of skeletal muscles?
a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Spinal cord d. Medulla
14. Chemical equations can be written on the basis of
a. Law of constant proportion b. Law of multiple proportions
c. Law of reciprocal proportion d. None
15. Trimuthis festival is annually held at
a. Tanjore b. Tirurayar
c. Tiruavares d. Kumbakonam

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RRB Ranchi : Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Paper (Based on Memory)

RRB Ranchi Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Paper (Based on Memory)

1. What is the value of knee voltage of silicon diode?
1) 0.3 V 2) 0.33 V 3) 0.7 V 4) 1.1 V
2. Which organisation has proposed first to constitute the Constitution Assembly to form the Indian Constitution?
1) Swaraj Party in 1928 2) Indian National Congress in 1936
3) Muslim League in 1942 4) By all parties convention in 1946
3. There is 20 volt across the inductor and 15 volt across the resistance in the a.c. supplied series R-L circuit. What would be the supply voltage?
1) 20 volt 2) 15 volt 3) 25 volt 4) 17.5 volt
4. A transformer mainly transforms .....
1) Current 2) Voltage 3) Frequency 4) Power
5. What is the power factor of a pure resistor circuit?
1) One 2) Zero 3) Leading 4) Lagging
6. Functions of N.S.D.L. are related to-
1) Bearer bonds 2) GDRs 3) Electronic share 4) Debenture
7. There are rings around which of the following planets?
1) Uranus 2) mars 3) Jupiter 4) Saturn
8. ..... is used to heat the non-conductors.
1) Eddy current heating 2) Arc heating
3) Induction heating 4) Dielectric heating
9. What is the S.I. Unit of magnetic flux density?
1) Gauss 2) Tesla 3) Oersted 4) Weber

10. Which type of oscillator is most stable in simple circuit?
1) Crystalline oscillator 2) Clapp oscillator
3) Colpitts oscillator 4) Armstrong oscillator
11. Where is the headquarters of Geological Survey of India located?
1) Patna 2) Dehradun 3) Kolkata 4) Agra
12. What is the proper use of signal generator?
1) Designing 2) Testing 3) Repairing 4) All the above
13. Nasik is situated on the bank of which river?
a) Godavari 2) Narmada 3) Tapti 4) Shipra
14. Who started the Shaka era?
1) Ashoka 2) Chandragupta-II
3) Kanishka 4) Harsha
15. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the ......
1) exhaust till be smoky
2) piston rings would stick into piston grooves
3) scavenging occurs
4) engine starts overheating
16. The information is sent by CW transmitter by-
1) Changing the audio frequency 2) Interrupting radio signal
3) Using microphone 4) Using camera
17. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using .................
1) Tubular centrifugal 2) Clarifier
3) Sparkler filter 4) Vacuum leaf filter

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रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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