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(Papers) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Exam-2013 General Knowledge Solved Paper

(Papers) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Exam-2013

General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. As a result of global warming, we could be
(A) sea level rise (B) changes in crop pattern
(C) changes in the coast line (D) All the above

(Ans: D)

2. The Earth Summit (Save Earth) had organized
(A) by UNESCO (B) by Yuensiidi
(C) W H o (D) UNICEF

(Ans: B)

3. If the two things complement their cross price elasticity modules:
(A) minus (B) plus (C) negative (D) imaginary number

(Ans: C)

4. The opportunity cost of producing a commodity that is-
(A) the costs which the firm can take on a different technique was adopted
(B) the cost of production under a different law firm could raise
(C) actual costs incurred
(D) the next best alternative production leaved

(Ans: D)

5. land vary in the short term by any other factor is the earned surplus are:
(A) economic rent (surplus) (B) Net rent (surplus)
(C) virtual rent (surplus) (D) Max normal rent (surplus)

(Ans: C)

6. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Planning and Development Minister (B) FM
(C) Prime Minister (D) Rural and Community Development Minister

(Ans: C)

7. Which of the following is not true in the case when the economy is in a high interest rate?
(A) is increased savings (B) lending is reduced
(C) the cost of production increases (D) return of capital increases

(Ans: D)

8. Which of the following is not the method of measurement of national income?
(A) value-added method (B) Income Method
(C) investment method (D) expense method

(Ans: C)

9. labor-intensive techniques shall be chosen
(A) in a labor surplus economy (B) capital surplus economy
(C) in the developed economies (D) in developing economies

(Ans: A)

10. Which of the following will not be economic activity?
(A) was read to the students in his class teacher
(B) the teacher is teaching students under SSA
(C) read to her daughter's home teacher
(D) is providing advisory services to his residence Teacher

(Ans: C)

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

रेलवे सुरक्षा बल (RPF) में सहायक निरीक्षक (Sub-Inspector) के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री 2018

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री


11. Finance Commission
(A) makes five-year plans
(B) makes monetary policy
(C) The Central Government has recommended the revision of salaries
(D) resources between the center and the states decides on Bntbare

(Ans: D)

12. When a country's net national product is-
(A) to GDP, reduced allowances Mulyttas
(B) by adding net income in GDP abroad
(C) Gross national product of the net income from abroad reduced
(D) of the gross national product Mulyhnas allowances reduced

(Ans: D)

13. To whom jaundice is caused by infection?
(A) of the brain (B) liver (C) Renal (D) spleen (spleen)

(Ans: B)

14. The average rate of the heart beat in a normal person is-
(A) 82 (B) 92 (C) 72 (D) 98

(Ans: C)

15. EEG (EEG) is used to record what activity?
(A) Heart (B) Lung (C) brain (D) muscle

(Ans: C)

16. cow's milk due to the presence of a yellow color what happens?
(A) Jathofil (B), riboflavin (C) Raibulos (D) Carotene

(Ans: D)

17. Which of the following is a contagious disease?
(A) diabetes (B) diphtheria (C) arthritis (D) Cancer

(Ans: B)

18. Which of the following volume is decreased in anemia?
(A) hemoglobin (B) collagen (C) Haioglobin (D) myosin

(Ans: A)

19. Which of the following disease is often transmitted through the air?
(A) The Plague (B) Tayfoid (C) Tuberculosis (D) Cholera

(Ans: C)

20. A rich source of food, ie
(A) starch (B) of glucose (C) of fructose (D) of Maltose

(Ans: A)

21. Aspirin simple name is-
(A) of salicylic acid (B) of salicylate
(C) of Methil salicylate (D) Aesitil of salicylic acid

(Ans: D)

22. Forms due to smallpox
(A) Rubiola virus (B) Variola virus (C) Varisela (D) Micsovayrs

(Ans: B)

23. Carbon monoxide is a flammable gas. Which of the following and is flammable gas?
(A) Helium (B) nitrogen (C) oxygen (D) hydrogen

(Ans: D)

24. breathing mechanism should
(A) Heat (B) Water (C) oxygen (D) sunlight

(Ans: C)

25. Which of the following metal reacts with water to produce hydrogen does not?
(A) potassium (B) cadmium (C) sodium (D) Lithium

(Ans: B)

26. Forms are ozone
(A) only oxygen (B) oxygen and nitrogen
(C) hydrogen and carbon (D) oxygen and carbon

(Ans: A)

27. Which of the following has the lowest density of liquid?
(A) FRESH WATER (B) salted water (C) gasoline (D) Mercury

(Ans: C)

28. 'low temperature' to cause which of the following principle is used?
(A) superconductivity (B) water-Kelvin effect
(C) heat-electric effect (D) Adiabatic demagnetization

(Ans: D)

29. Forms photoelectric cell changes
(A) mechanical energy into electrical energy (B) heat energy into mechanical energy
(C) light energy into chemical energy (D) light energy into electrical energy

(Ans: D)

30. The two stones of different mass from the top of a building with a dropped-in
(A) small stone on the ground before it reaches
(B) large stones on the ground before it reaches
(C) both arrive at the stone ground
(D) depends on the composition of the stone

(Ans: C)

31. pulsars, ie
(A) are the stars of the earth (B) are moving away from Earth stars
(C) rapidly moving stars (D) high-temperature stars

(Ans: C)

32. The solar system's largest planet is-
(A) Earth (B) Tue (C) Saturn (D) Jupiter

(Ans: D)

33. "National School of Drama," which of the following is situated in the city?
(A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) Bhopal (D) Kolkata

(Ans: B)

34. When and where our national anthem was sung for the first time?
(A) 24 January, 1950 at Allahabad (B) 24 January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26 December, 1942 in Calcutta (D) 27 December, 1911 in Calcutta

(Ans: D)

35. The ozone hole in the atmosphere has been detected, where it is located?
(A) over the Arctic Ocean (B) above Aentarktika
(C) over India (D) above Alaska

(Ans: B)

36. Talent Playn-
(A) is a disease
(B) educational and technical institutions dissuade students say
(C) the cost of scientific and industrial research is pointless
(D) migration of skilled personnel say

(Ans: D)

37. How many lines Dharmacakra the national flag?
(A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 18 (D) 14

(Ans: B)

38. 'India Today' it?
(A) unstable mass of problems
(B) by removing the former British India, Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) a newsletter dedicated to current affairs
(D) is a member of the Indian Union, the United Nations

(Ans: C)

39. Book 'is VAZ Fraiv Past Midnight "is the subject?
(A) of the Bhuj earthquake (B) of Orissa flood
(C) of Andhra Pradesh cyclone (D) Bhopal Gas case,

(Ans: D)

40. "Tin Bigha Corridor" that connects?
(A) for India and Pakistan (B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan (D) Bangladesh and India

(Ans: D)

41. Pulitzer Prize for outstanding work in the area are recognized?
(A) Science and Technology (B) literature and journalism
(C) International Understanding (D) Environmental Studies

(Ans: B)

42. Victory Column built in Chittor Who did?
(A) Maharana Pratap (B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) the Azad Rana (D) Rana Ratan Singh

(Ans: C)

43. The instrument is used to change the speed of the electric fan?
(A) amplifier (B) regulator (C) switch (D) Rectifier

(Ans: B)

44. Namdhapa National Park?
(A) Mizoram (B) Manipur (C), Tripura (D) Arunachal Pradesh

(Ans: D)

45. Which religious books Gandhiji their 'mother said?
(A) Ramayana (B) The New Testament (C) to God Gita (D) Koran

(Ans: C)

46. ​​Which of the following Tehri Hydro Power Complex is located on the river?
(A) Alaknanda (B) Mandakini (C) Dhauliganga (D) Bhagirathi

(Ans: D)

47. Nobel laureate Amartya Sen of India are famous for acting in what area?
(A) Physics (B) Protecting the environment (C) Chemistry (D) Economics

(Ans: D)

48. Which of the following North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is not a member?
(A) Italy (B) Germany (C) USA (D) India

(Ans: D) 

49. Which country following the recent 'Tiangung -1 called "first space laboratory module launched?
(A) South Korea (B) North Korea (C) China (D) Japan

(Ans: C) 

50. Which of the following countries of SAARC in India recently, an important border with the Pact?
(A) Myanmar (B) Nepal (C) China (D) Bangladesh

(Ans: D)

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

रेलवे सुरक्षा बल (RPF) में सहायक निरीक्षक (Sub-Inspector) के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री 2018

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

Courtesy: RPF

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RPF Constable Exam Solved Question Paper (Held Feb 2015)

Railway Protection Force (RPF/RPSF) Constable Exam

Solved Question Paper (Held Feb 2015)

1. Which of these states has the longest international border ? 
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Assam

(Ans : c)

2. Which of these fabrics is named after a French dress maker? 
(a) Linen (b) Crepe (c) Georgette (d) Chiffon

 (Ans : c)  

3. Who was the founder of Sikhism? 
(a) Guru Govind Singh (b) Guru Ramdass (c) Guru Nanak (d) Ranjeet Singh

(Ans : c)

4. Who is the founder of Patna's famous Super 30 institute that coaches economically back- ward students for IIT JEE ? 
(a) Anurag Anand (b) Sushil Kumar (c) Anand Kumar (d) Nitish Kumar

(Ans : c)

5. Shri Narendra Modi is the ……of India. 
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister (c) Leader of Opposition (d) President

(Ans : b)

6. National Unity Day is celebrated in India on. 
(a) 30th January (b) 29th August (c) 31st October (d) 2nd October

(Ans : c) 

7. Which continent is the Giraffe native to? 
(a) Australia (b) Africa (c) America (d) Asia

 (Ans : b) 

8. Sumo is a traditional form of wrestling of which country ? 
(a) China (b) Japan (c)Vietnam (d) South Korea

(Ans : b)

9. Amir Khusro was the famous poet in the court of. 
(a) Shah Jahan (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Akbar (d) Sher Shah Suri

(Ans : b)

10. Which of these medical conditions is classified into Type-1 and Type-2 ? 
(a) Diabetes (b) Hepatitis (c) Night Blindness (d) Common Cold

(Ans : a)

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Constable

रेलवे सुरक्षा बल (RPF) सिपाही परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री


11. Who is the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed Forces? 
(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice-President (c) Chief of Army Staff (d) President

(Ans : d)

12. The surface of which of these planets is not solid ? 
(a) Jupiter (b) Mars (c) Venus (d) Mercury

(Ans : a)

13. With which main ingredient is litti, a food item from Bihar. stuffed? 
(a) Onion (b) Potato (c) Vegetables (d) Gram Flour

(Ans : d)

14. Which natural phenomenon conducts carbon dioxide fixation in plants? 
(a) Sunlight (b) Rain (c) Thunder (d) Cosmic Rays

(Ans : a)

15. Other than cricket which game also has a striker? 
(a) Ludo (b) Kho- Kho (c) Carrom (d) Chess

(Ans : c)

16. Islamic State is not waging a battle against– 
(a) Ukraine (b) Lebanon (c) Iraq (d) Syria

(Ans : a)

17. Which of these places got its name from a local word for mangrove trees? 
(a) Vrindavan (b) Sunderbans (c) Mussoorie (d) Madhubani

 (Ans : b) 

18. Name the Chief Minister of Jharkhand. 
(a) Babulal Marandi (b) Arjun Munda (c) Raghubar Das (d) Hemant Soren

(Ans : c)

19. If you are in Red Fort, which city are you visiting? 
(a) Agra (b) Hyderabad (c) Jaipur (d) Delhi

(Ans : d)

20. Which of these is Dot a port city on the Arabian Sea? 
(a) Panaji (b) Vishakhapatnam (c) Mumbai (d) Mangalore

(Ans : b)

21. Which of these Asian countries is not landlocked? 
(a) Afghanistan (b) Laos (c) Mongolia (d) Cambodia

(Ans : d)

22. Which was the first hill passenger railway opened in India in 1881 ? 
(a) Kalka Shimla Railway (b) Matheran Hill Railway (c) Nilgiri Mountain Railway (d) Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

(Ans : d)

23. What does CO stand for? 
(a) Carbon (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Coal (d) Carbon dioxide

(Ans : b)

24. Raslila dance is associated with which God ? 
(a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Ganesha (c) Lord Indra (d) Lord Krishna

(Ans : d)

25. Which of the following is an Indian online retail company? 
(a) Alibaba Group (b) Amazon (c) eBay (d) Jabong

(Ans : d)

26. For making which sweet is winter melon or white gourd soaked in sugar syrup? 
(a) Jalebi (b) Petha (c) Gulab Jamun (d) Murabba

(Ans : b)

27. Which of these is an essential component of most acids? 
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Helium (d) Nitrogen

(Ans : a)

28. Sir Creek is a disputed territory between India and. 
(a) Myanmar (b) Nepal (c) Pakistan (d) Bangladesh

(Ans : c)

29. Which of these is essential to keep bones strong in the body? 
(a) Iodine (b) Zinc (c) Fats (d) Calcium

(Ans : a)

30. How many different kinds of zodiac signs are there in Astrology ? 
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 11

(Ans : a)

31. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2014 has been awarded to– 
(a) Kailash Satyarthi (b) Barack Obama (c) Kailash Satyarthi and Tawakkul Karman (d) Kailash Satyarthi and Malala Yousafzai

(Ans : d)

32. The autobiography of which freedom fighter is titled 'Atmakatha' which he wrote during his prison time in Bankipore Jail in Patna? 
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Ram Manohar Lohia (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) Jayaprakash Narayan

(Ans : a)

33. Which was the first element to be artificially produced? 
(a) Technetium (b) Francium (c) Einsteinium (d) Promethium

(Ans : a)

34. Who was the host of TV show 'Big Boss 8' '? 
(a) Salman Khan (b) Amitabh Bachchan (c) Shah Rukh Khan (d) Amir Khan

(Ans : a)

35. Which of the following is not a social networking website? 
(a) Facebook (b) hi5 (c) Wikipedia (d) Twitter

(Ans : c)

36. In the Northern Hemisphere, around which date does the summer solstice occur? 
(a) 21st June (b) 22nd July (c) 23rd May (d) 31st March

(Ans : a)

37. Which of these fruits is not rich in vitamin C ? 
(a) Orange (b) Kiwi (c) Lemon (d) Apple

(Ans : d)

38. Deepika Kumari is associated with which sport ? 
(a) Shooting (b) Wrestling (c) Archery (d) Football

(Ans : c)

39. Which of these countries is an archipelago? 
(a) Laos (b) Chile (c) Philippines (d) Argentina

(Ans : c)

40. Flight 17, which was shot down over Ukraine was a scheduled international passenger flight to Kuala Lumpur from– 
(a) Amsterdam (b) Moscow (c) Paris (d) London

(Ans : a)

41. Manik Sarkar is the Chief Minister of– 
(a) Assam (b) Tripura (c) West Bengal (d) Sikkim

(Ans : b)

42. Kaziranga National Park is most famous for– 
(a) Swamp Deer (b) Wild Ass (c) One-homed Rhinoceros (d) Asiatic Lion

(Ans : c)

43. Which was the last autonomous territory or protectorate to integrate with the Indian union? 
(a) Puducherry (b) Sikkim (c) Diu (d) Goa

(Ans : b)

44. Which country will host the 2016 Summer Olympic Games? 
(a) Argentina (b) Russia (c) Japan (d) Brazil

(Ans : d)

45. Rann of Kutch is situated in which state? 
(a) Bihar (b) Rajasthan (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra

(Ans : c)

46. Which new university named after an ancient centre of learning in its vicinity, began its academic session in 2014 ? 
(a) Takshila (b) Nalanda (c) Pushpagiri (d) Vikramshila

(Ans : b)

47. The sign for which mathematical function is the logo of the Red Cross society ? 
(a) Subtraction (b) Multiplication (c) Division (d) Addition

(Ans : d)

48. Who was the ruling Governor General of India when the power was transferred from the East India Company to the British crown ? 
(a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Canning (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Mountbatten

(Ans : b)

49. Wangchuck dynasty is the ruler of which country ? 
(a) Brunei (b) Indonesia (c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan

(Ans : d)

50. Which of these Union Cabinet ministers have never served a the Chief Minister of any State or Union territory ? 
(a) Ram Vilas Paswan (b) D.V. Sadananda Gowda (c) Rajnath Singh (d) Sushma Swaraj

(Ans : a) 

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Constable

रेलवे सुरक्षा बल (RPF) सिपाही परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

Courtesy: RPF

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Railway Protection Force (RPF/CPSF) Constable Exam Solved Question Paper - 2013

Railway Protection Force (RPF/CPSF) Constable Exam

Solved Question Paper - 2013

1. Mahatma Gandhi where your Dundee trip was initiated?
(A) Dundee (b) the Sabarmati (c) Champaran (d) South Africa

(Ans: b)

2. Which of the famous Jallianwala Bagh incident took place in the city?
(A) Patiala (b) Chandigarh (c) Amritsar (d) Jalandhar

(Ans: c)

3. 'Inqualab live' Who gave the slogan of?
(A) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Sardar Bhagat Singh (c) Chandrashekhar Azad (d) Muhammad Iqbal

(Ans: b)

4. Which of the following is the river falls into the Arabian Sea?
(A) Kaveri (b) Krishna (c) Godavari (d) Indus

(Ans: d)

5. From the perspective of the area is the largest state of India which?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra

(Ans: b)

6. 'Zoom' is?
(A) a sort of tribal dance (b) A type of plantation
(C) a type of wind (d) the type of festival

(Ans: b)

7. "The heart of the Indian Constitution," stated which of the following?
(A) religious freedom (b) the right to equality
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Preamble

(Ans: c)

8. President's rule in the state constitution, which is levied under Article?
(A) Article -352 (b) of Article -356 (c) of Article -360 (d) of Article -370

(Ans: b)

9. A Bill is a Money Bill or not, who it describes?
(A) President (b) Speaker (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice President

(Ans: b)

10. Who among the following Bhoodan movement was started?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Vinova Bhave (c) Bllbbai Sardar Patel (d) JP

(Ans: b)

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Constable

रेलवे सुरक्षा बल (RPF) सिपाही परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री


11. Start date of the fiscal year in India is-
(A) 1 March (b) 1 January (c) 1 April (d) 1 November

(Ans: c)

12. Which of the following is the Bank of the private sector?
(A) Vijaya Bank (b) Syndicate Bank (c) Indian Overseas Bank (d) the Unit Trust of India

(Ans: d)

13. India's national income to estimate what's the job?
(A) Planning Commission (b) Ministry of Finance (c) National Development Council (d) The Central Statistical Organisation

(Ans: d)

14. The speed of a supersonic aircraft that is-
(A) equal to the movement of sound (b) At the sound moves
(C) sound moves over (d) movement of light equivalent

(Ans: c)

15. 'light years' Which of the following is the unit?
(A) move (b) energy, (c) the distance (d) Time

(Ans: c)

16. Forms measurement of pure gold
(A) 18-carat (b) 20 carats (c) 22 carat (d) 24 carat

(Ans: d)

17. 2010 E. In the Commonwealth Games which of the following will be in town?
(A) Manchester (b) Kuala Lumpur (c) New Delhi (d) Sydney

(Ans: c)

Former Pakistan cricket coach Bob Bulmr 18. In which city was born?
(A) Jaipur (b) Kanpur (c) Mumbai (d) Motihari

(Ans: b)

19. where Gautama Buddha gave his teachings?
(A) Bodh Gaya (b) Lumbini (c) Kushinagar (d) Sarnath

(Ans: d)

20. Which of the following rule to the Chinese traveler Xuanzang visited India?
(A) Chandragupta II (b) Samudragupta (c) Harsha (d) Kanishka

(Ans: c)

21. Who was the establishment of Khalsa Panth?
(A) Raja Ranjit Singh (b) Guru Gobind Singh (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur (d) of Guru Nanak Dev

(Ans: c)

22. Third Battle of Panipat was among whom-whom?
(A) the Mughal and British (b) the Afghan and French (c) the Afghans and the Marathas (d) Fenc and British

(Ans: b)

23. Who was the Arya Samaj founded?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(C) Swami Vivekananda (d) Keshvcndra Sen

(Ans: c)

24. Which of the following is part of administrative policy?
(A) truth (b) Efficiency (c) neutrality (d) All of the above

(Ans: b)

25. Which of the following IAS framework of the model is derived from the country?
(A) United States (b) Great Britain (c) Russia (d) Canada

(Ans: d)

26. In 2005, the 'right to information', the person who is leading in the convention?
(A) Sunderlal Bahuguna (b) Medha Patekar (c) Rajendra Singh (d) Aruna Roy

(Ans: d)

27. Which of the following is the state's sex ratio over 1000?
(A) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) HP

(Ans: a) 

28. How much per year in the 11th Five Year Plan has set a target of job creation?
(A) 5 million (b) 10 million (c) 15 million to (d) 1 million

(Ans: d)

29. Which of the following is the agency district cooperative credit system?
(A) The State Co-operative Banks (b) Central Cooperative Bank (c) Apex Bank (d) Regional Rural Banks

(Ans: b)

30. Governor (Governor) who makes the swearing?
(A) Prime Minister (b) Chief (c) the Chief Justice of the High Court, (d) the President

(Ans: c)

31. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration where it is located?
(A) Gurgaon (b), New Delhi (c) Mussoorie (d) Nainital

(Ans: c)

32. In India, District Collector (DC) When was the creation of the post?
(A) 1892 e. (B) 1872 e. (C) 1972 e. (D) 1792 e.

(Ans: d)

33. Which of the following pay commission has been set up recently?
(A) fourth (b) the fifth (c) sixth (d), seventh

(Ans: c)

34. Which of the following elections by the Election Commission is not?
(A) President (b) Vice President (c) CM (d) None of these

(Ans: c)

35. Which bank First Imperial Bank "was known?
(A) Reserve Bank of India (b) State Bank of India
(C) Punjab National Bank (d) Exim Bank

(Ans: b)

36. "Wind laughing, 'What is that?
(A) a public undertaking (b) Siberian duck (c) a well-known bird sanctuary (d) a boat

(Ans: a)

37. Which city with a population over 10 million people living in slums or settlements is the lowest number of?
(A) Delhi (b) Greater Mumbai (c) Bangalore (d) Patna

(Ans: c)

38. The President of the Lok Sabha, which is nominated for 2 people from the community?
(A) Buddhist monks (b) find Rsion (c) Anglo-Indians (d) None of these

(Ans: c)

39. Investment Commission (Commission appropriation) Which of the following are the chairman?
(A) Mukesh Ambani (b), Tata (c) Joy M (d) Hassan Azim Premji

(Ans: b)

40. Who is India's largest software company?
(A), Wipro (b) Infosys (c) TCS (D) Satyam

(Ans: b)

41. In India, people living below the poverty line is set to identify the many parameters?
(A) 10 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 16

(Ans: b)

42. NASSCOM (NASSCOM) Which of the following are the president?
(A) Dewang Mahato (b) Kiran Karnik
(C) v. Ramalingam Raju (d) Laxmi Narayan

(Ans: d)

43. Who was the president of the Indian National Congress, the first Muslim?
(A) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (b) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (d) Abul Kalam Azad

(Ans: b)

44. Which of the following at the end of his life, Ramakrishna Mission Swami revolutionary terror had become?
(A) A Rbind Ghosh (b) Hem Kanungo (c) Ajit Singh (d) Jtindranath Bandyopadhyay

(Ans: d)

45. When does the minimum distance between the Sun and Earth?
(A) 22 September (b) 21 June (c) 21 September (d) 3 January

(Ans: d)

46. ​​"Midnight Sun" can be found to the situation in the region?
(A) tropical regions (b) warm temperate zone
(C) the northern and southern polar regions (d) the time of the solar eclipse anywhere

(Ans: c)

47. America's resident redneck people what is known?
(A) Buschmann (b) Alpine (c) Amerind (d) Mastijo

(Ans: c)

48. Which of these 'Madyamika School of Philosophy' was the founder of?
(A) Asng (b) Bsubnd (c) Nagarjuna (d) Nagsen

(Ans: c)

49. Which is the novel written by Premchand?
(I) Premasry (ii) four chapters (iii) amphitheater (iv) Godaan
(A) i, ii and iv (b) i and iv (c) i, iii and iv (d) ii and iii

(Ans: c)

50. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Justice Movement - Northern India (b) Kayasthas movement - Karnataka
(C) lingayat Movement - South (d) Namsudra movement - Bengal

(Ans: d) 

 

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Constable

रेलवे सुरक्षा बल (RPF) सिपाही परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

Courtesy: RPF

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(Apply Online) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Post

(Apply Online) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Post

Apply Online :

Click on the ONLINE https://si.rpfonlinereg.org/ application link for the recruitment of Sub-Inspector and carry out the following:
a) Confirm that you have read and understood the instructions clearly by clicking the check box.
b) Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father’s name, Mother’s name, Aadhaar number(optional), State/UT, Category, Education Board, 10th/Matric Roll number, year of passing 10th/Matric, mobile number and email-id and then submit for registration. Before submitting for registration, ensure and confirm that all the information are correct as the details furnished for registration cannot be changed later.

c) On submitting registration form, the registration number and password shall be displayed to the candidate. Also, OTPs (One Time Password) shall be sent to the registered mobile number and email along with the registration details. The candidate should retrieve the OTPs from email and mobile and then login to proceed with the filling up of application and to make payment. Candidate should note and preserve their registration number for later reference during the recruitment process. Central Recruitment Committee will not entertain any request seeking registration number.

d) The online format of application will have the fields for Educational qualification, Gender, Religion, ESM, and Minority, Economically backward class, Age relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.

e) On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (online->net banking/credit card/debit card & offline->Other Modes->bank Branch for Challan) or Post Office Challan and complete the payment process. Please note the last date and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time.

f) In case of online payment, candidate will be automatically directed to Part II of application for filling up additional details. Those paying through Bank-offline  mode, the payment confirmation may take about an hour and hence they have to again login after 60 minutes and look for confirmation of payment status. The time period for payment confirmation shall vary from 24 hrs to 48 hrs in case of Post Office payment. On getting the confirmation status, the candidate can start filling remaining part (part III) of the application. Candidates should provide the details of beneficiary account, in which they would like to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary name, bank name, Account Number and IFSC code in the online application. Part III of application will have following fields: Details of Educational Qualification, choice of Group and preference of Zone/RPSF, choice of exam language for CBT etc:-

Choice of Zone/RPSF: Candidate shall opt for a Group and shall further indicate his/her preference of Zonal Railways falling in that Group (except for Group E & F). Candidates opting for Group E and F shall only have the option of N.F.Rly. and RPSF respectively. Once Group is optedcandidates will be considered against the vacancies of that particular Group only.

Choice of Exam Language for CBT: Candidates shall have following language options for Computer Based Test ( CBT) out of which they shall have to opt for any one: -
Hindi, English, Urdu, Tamil, Telugu, Konkani, Malayalam, Kannada, Marathi, Gujurati, Bengali, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese and Manipuri.

g) Uploading of colour Photograph: Select the Upload Photo tab and upload your recent colour photograph. The photograph should comply with the following requirements.

  • The Colour passport photograph with white/light colour back ground.
  • Photograph of size 35mm X 45mm with name and date printed on it.
  • It should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI.
  • The size of the photograph should be between 15 - 40 KB.
  • The colour photograph may be developed in a professional studio. Photographs taken using mobile and self composed portraits or selfie may result in rejection of application.
  • The photo should have clear front view of the candidate without cap and sunglasses.
  • The face should occupy at least 50% of the area of the photograph with a full face view looking at the camera directly.
  • The main features of the face must not be covered by hair of the head, any cloth or any shadow.
  • Forehead, eyes, nose and chin should be clearly visible.
  • In case the candidate wears glass, then the photograph should not have any glare on glasses.
  • The photograph must match with the candidate appearance on the day of various stages of CBT, PET, PMT and DV.

h) Candidates are advised to keep at least 12 (Twelve) copies of the same photograph for further use as and when required during the recruitment process.
i) Candidates belonging to SC/ST have to upload scanned copy of their SC/ST certificates (JPG/JPEG format, 50kb – 100kb) also for availing the facility of free travel authority (Second Class Railway Pass). j) In the end, candidates have to confirm the declaration “I hereby declare that I have gone through the eligibility criteria for the post applied for and meet all the requirements therein, that all the details furnished by me in the application are true and complete to the best of my knowledge &
belief and nothing has been concealed or suppressed. I also understand that in case, any of the details furnished is found untrue during any stage of recruitment or thereafter Railway Administration shall disqualify me for the post applied for and /or I shall be liable for any other action under the extant rules”. After confirming the above declaration and submission of the application the entire application shall be displayed for confirmation once again and on confirmation, the candidate may take the print of the application and preserve it for reference and record.

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Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Notification) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Recruitment-2018

(Notification) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Recruitment-2018

ONLINE applications are invited from eligible Male and Female candidates for the recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (SI) in Level 6 of 7 th CPC Pay matrix for the vacancies in Railway Protection Force (RPF) of various Zones of Indian Railways and Railway Protection Special Force (RPSF). Applications complete in all respect should be submitted ONLINE ONLY before 23.59 hrs of 30/06/2018

Number of Vacancies

Group Zonal Railway Male Female
UR SC ST OBC Total UR SC ST OBC Total
A SR, SWR & SCR 75 9 21 21 126 29 5 9 9 52
B CR, WR, WCR & SECR 59 24 13 48 144 22 11 5 18 56
C ER, ECR, SER & ECoR 149 49 21 68 287 59 18 9 26 112
D NR, NER, NWR & NCR 96 36 10 31 173 39 14 4 12 69
E NFR 21 5 1 3 30 8 2 1 1 12
F RPSF 54 1 3 1 59 - - - - -
  Total 454 124 69 172 819 157 50 28 66 301

Note I: As per Govt of India instruction, the reservation for Ex-servicemen (ESM) shall be 10% of the combined vacancies of male and female of each group of zones.

Note II: Since the reservation for ESM and Female are horizontal in nature, vacancies remaining unfilled for want of suitable ESM and Females during recruitment shall be filled up by the suitable Male candidate as per existing guidelines.

Note III: Details of abbreviations:

CR= Central Railway, ER=Eastern Railway, ECoR=East Coast Railway, ECR=East Central Railway, NR=Northern Railway, NCR=North Central Railway, NER=North Eastern Railway, NFR=North East Frontier Railway, NWR=North Western Railway, SR=Southern Railway, SCR=South Central Railway, SER=South Eastern Railway, SECR=South East Central Railway, SWR=South Western Railway, WR=Western Railway, WCR=West Central Railway, UR=Un Reserved (General) SC=Scheduled Caste, ST=Scheduled Tribe, OBC=Other Backward Classess, ESM=Ex. Servicemen

Eligibility :

  1. A candidate must be a citizen of India.
  2. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.
  3. Educational Qualification and age:
    Category Educational Qualification Age
    Min Max
    Sub Inspector ( Executive) Graduate from a recognized University. 20 25

    Note: Degree from a recognized University for Sub-Inspector (Executive) shall only be valid. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed educational qualification SHOULD NOT apply.

  4. Physical Measurement:
    Category Height (in CMs) Chest ( in CMs) ( Only for Male)
    Male Female Unexpanded Expanded
    UR/OBC 165 157 80 85
    SC/ST 160 152 76.2 81.2
    For Garhwalis, Gorkhas, Marathas, Dogras, Kumaonese and other Categories specified by Govt. 163 155 80 85
  5. Date of birth mentioned in matriculation or equivalent certificate alone shall be acceptable. The lower and upper age limit indicated in the Employment Notice will be reckoned as on 1st July 2018.

    The relaxation in upper age limit/maximum upper age for the following categories/ communities in the table below is applicable subject to submission of requisite certificates:

    S.No. Category Age relaxation permissible beyond upper age limit
    1 SC/ST Candidates 5 years
    2 OBC – Non Creamy Layer candidates 3 years
    3. Ex-servicemen candidates who have put in not less than 6 months continuous service after attestation. To the extent of service rendered in Armed Force plus UR – 3 years, OBC-Non-creamy Layer – 6 years. SC/ST – 8 years
    4. Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from 1st January 1980 to 31st December 1989 ( Unreserved) UR – 5 years OBC–Non-creamy layer - 8 years SC/ST – 10 years
    5. Central Govt. employees (Unreserved) other than ex-servicemen who have rendered not less than 3 years of regular & continuous service on date of reckoning. UR – 5 years OBC–Non-creamy layer - 8 years SC/ST – 10 years
    6. Widows, divorced women and women judicially separated from husband but remarried UR – 2 years OBC- Non-creamy layer – 5 years. SC/ST – 7 years
  6. Date of birth of candidates should be between the dates given below:
    (Both dates inclusive)
    S.No. Age Group Upper limit of Date of Birth ( Not earlier than) Lower limit of Date of Birth ( Not later than)
    UR OBC-Non Creamy Layer SC/ST For all category/category
    1. 20 to 25 02.07.93 02.07.90 02.07.88 01.07.98

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

Examination Fee:

Candidates applying for the post notified in this Employment Notice have to pay the prescribed fee as per their category detailed below:

S.No. Candidates Categories Fee
1 For all candidates except the fee concession categories mentioned below at Sl No. 2
* Rs. 400/- shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges on appearing in CBT.
Rs. 500/-
2 For candidates belonging to SC/ST/Ex-serviceman/Female/Minorities/Economically backward class. 
* This fee of Rs. 250/- shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges on appearing in CBT.
Rs. 250/-

Note: In the event of cancellation of notified vacancies, the examination fee will not be refunded.

Mode of Payment :

I) ONLINE fee payment through internet baking or debit/credit cards.
II) OFFLINE fee payment through
a) SBI Bank Challan payment mode in any branch of SBI.
b) Post office Challan Payment Mode in any branch of computerized Post Office.

The online payment will be allowed till 23.59 hrs of 02.07.2018 and offline payment will be allowed till 23.59 hrs of 05.07.2018 for candidates who register themselves till 23.59 hrs of 30.06.2018. However, registration will be confirmed only on payment of the fee.

III) All applicable service charges shall be borne by the candidates. If the fee is paid through offline mode viz (II) a) & b) above, the receipt should be preserved. The same should be produced on demand at the time of Document Verification (DV).

IV) Minorities include Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains and Zoroastrians (Parsis) subject to revision/deletion/inclusion, if any, received till the closing date of notification. Minority candidates claiming waiver of examination fee will be required to furnish, at the time of DV, “Minority Category Declaration” affidavit on non-judicial stamp paper that they belong to any of the above minority communities, failing which their candidature will be rejected.

V) Economically Backward Class ( EBC) candidates are those whose annual family income is less than Rs. 50,000/-. Such Candidates should have valid Income Certificate in the prescribed format or on the letterhead of the Issuing Authority to this effect. The certificate details should be filled in the online application and same should be submitted at the time of DV. Candidates having BPL card also eligible for fee concession under EBC and all these candidates seeking fee concession should fill in the relevant details in the ONLINE application.

VI) Candidates who appear in CBT will be eligible for fee refund. For exam fee refund (amount as applicable), they should provide details of beneficiary account viz. Beneficiary name, Bank name, and Account Number and IFSC code. Applications not accompanied with examination fee, wherever applicable, will be summarily rejected.

Reservation :

I) This Employment Notification provides for Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST) and other Backward Class ( OBC)- Non Creamy Layer

( NCL), wherever applicable and admissible as mentioned in the vacancy table.

II) All candidates, irrespective of category may be considered against UR vacancies, subject to fulfilment of parameters for UR candidates. However against the vacancies earmarked for specific communities (SC/ST/OBC – NCL), candidates belonging to that category only will be considered.

III) For availing reservation, SC/ST/OBC-NCL, candidates should furnish at the time of document verification Caste Certificate from competent authorities as per the format given at Annexure – A ( for SC/ST candidates) and Annexure – B ( for OBC-NCL candidates).

IV) In case of OBC-NCL candidates, the certificates should specifically indicate that the candidate does not belong to the Persons/Sections ( Creamy Layer) mentioned in column 3 of the Schedule of the Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through O.M. No. 36033/3/2004- Estt(Res) dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017 and further revision if any received till the closing date of this Employment Notice. The candidate should ensure that he/she belongs to the OBC-Non Creamy Layer category while applying for the post against this notification. Such candidate should produce a valid OBC certificate in the prescribed format during DV. Further, in addition to the category certificate (OBC), a declaration in the prescribed format has to be furnished by the candidate during DV, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer. Unless, fulfilling all the eligibility norms of reserved category (OBC – NCL) a candidate will not be considered against vacancies of OBC category and the candidature/application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General ( Un-reserved) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancy only.

V) Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC-NCL who fulfil required Educational Qualification can also apply against UR vacancies. They will however, have to compete with the UR candidates and will not be eligible for any relaxation including age to such SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates applying against UR vacancies. However,  candidates have to indicate their actual category in the application.

VI) Category status as on the closing date of Employment Notice shall only be considered for availing reservation benefits if eligible and any change in the category status of the candidate there after shall not be entertained. 

Recruitment Process:

Only single online application has to be submitted by the candidate to the Employment Notice for the notified post through the link provided on the official website. The entire recruitment process shall involve a Computer Based Test (CBT), Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & Physical Measurement Test (PMT) and Document Verification (DV). The date, time and venue for all the activities, namely, CBT, PET, PMT and DV or any other additional activity, as applicable, shall be fixed by CRC and shall be intimated in due course. Request for postponement of any of the above activity or for change of venue, date and shift will not be entertained under any circumstances.

PHASE – I – COMPUTER BASED TEST ( CBT)

PHASE – II- PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TEST(PET) & PHYSICAL MEASUREMENT (PMT)

PHASE – III: DOCUMENT VERIFICATION

FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES:

 

Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & Physical Measurement (PMT) :

Based on the merit of the candidates in the CBT, candidates will be called for PET and PMT to the extent of 10 times the category wise total vacancy in Group of Zonal Railways/RPSF notified. However, this limit may be increased/decreased as required ensuring availability of adequate candidates for all the notified posts. Passing Physical Efficiency Test (PET) is mandatory and the same will be qualifying in nature. No marks are to be awarded. The criteria for PET is as under:

Category 1600 meters run 800 meters run Long jump High jump
Sub-Inspector ( Exe) Male 6 min 30 secs - - 12 ft 3 ft 9 inch
Sub-Inspector ( Exe) Female - 4 mins 9 ft 3 ft

NOTE:

(i) For 1600/800 meters event only one chance will be given. For the remaining events viz Long Jump and High jump, the candidates will be given up to 2 chances each.

(ii) Ex-servicemen shall be exempted from PET, However, they will have to undergo PMT.

(iii) A Candidate must qualify in all Tests as per above norm to be eligible for consideration.

(iv) All the candidates qualifying in 1600 mtrs/800 mtrs will be measured for eligibility with respect to height and chest. Chest measurement will be taken only for male candidates. If a male candidate’s unexpanded chest measurement is below eligibility limit, expanded measurement shall not be taken and he shall be treated as disqualified.

(v) Male candidates who do not have minimum height shall not be considered for measurement of chest and shall be treated as disqualified.

(vi) Candidate who do not have minimum height, chest (unexpanded/expanded) shall be treated as having failed in PMT.

(vii) PET/PMT is qualifying in nature. No marks are to be awarded.

(viii) A grievance redressal cell will be set up for redressal of grievances related to Height and Chest measurements. 

How to Apply :

Click on the ONLINE https://si.rpfonlinereg.org/ application link for the recruitment of Sub-Inspector and carry out the following:
a) Confirm that you have read and understood the instructions clearly by clicking the check box.
b) Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father’s name, Mother’s name, Aadhaar number(optional), State/UT, Category, Education Board, 10th/Matric Roll number, year of passing 10th/Matric, mobile number and email-id and then submit for registration. Before submitting for registration, ensure and confirm that all the information are correct as the details furnished for registration cannot be changed later.

c) On submitting registration form, the registration number and password shall be displayed to the candidate. Also, OTPs (One Time Password) shall be sent to the registered mobile number and email along with the registration details. The candidate should retrieve the OTPs from email and mobile and then login to proceed with the filling up of application and to make payment. Candidate should note and preserve their registration number for later reference during the recruitment process. Central Recruitment Committee will not entertain any request seeking registration number.

d) The online format of application will have the fields for Educational qualification, Gender, Religion, ESM, and Minority, Economically backward class, Age relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.

e) On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (online->net banking/credit card/debit card & offline->Other Modes->bank Branch for Challan) or Post Office Challan and complete the payment process. Please note the last date and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time.

f) In case of online payment, candidate will be automatically directed to Part II of application for filling up additional details. Those paying through Bank-offline  mode, the payment confirmation may take about an hour and hence they have to again login after 60 minutes and look for confirmation of payment status. The time period for payment confirmation shall vary from 24 hrs to 48 hrs in case of Post Office payment. On getting the confirmation status, the candidate can start filling remaining part (part III) of the application. Candidates should provide the details of beneficiary account, in which they would like to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary name, bank name, Account Number and IFSC code in the online application. Part III of application will have following fields: Details of Educational Qualification, choice of Group and preference of Zone/RPSF, choice of exam language for CBT etc:-

Choice of Zone/RPSF: Candidate shall opt for a Group and shall further indicate his/her preference of Zonal Railways falling in that Group (except for Group E & F). Candidates opting for Group E and F shall only have the option of N.F.Rly. and RPSF respectively. Once Group is optedcandidates will be considered against the vacancies of that particular Group only.

Choice of Exam Language for CBT: Candidates shall have following language options for Computer Based Test ( CBT) out of which they shall have to opt for any one: -
Hindi, English, Urdu, Tamil, Telugu, Konkani, Malayalam, Kannada, Marathi, Gujurati, Bengali, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese and Manipuri.

g) Uploading of colour Photograph: Select the Upload Photo tab and upload your recent colour photograph. The photograph should comply with the following requirements.

Important Dates :

  • Application Begin: 01/06/2018
  • Last Date of Apply Online: 30/06/2018
  • Last Date Pay Exam Fee : 30/06/2018

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Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & Physical Measurement (PMT) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI)

Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & Physical Measurement (PMT)

Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI)

Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & Physical Measurement (PMT) :

Based on the merit of the candidates in the CBT, candidates will be called for PET and PMT to the extent of 10 times the category wise total vacancy in Group of Zonal Railways/RPSF notified. However, this limit may be increased/decreased as required ensuring availability of adequate candidates for all the notified posts. Passing Physical Efficiency Test (PET) is mandatory and the same will be qualifying in nature. No marks are to be awarded. The criteria for PET is as under:

Category 1600 meters run 800 meters run Long jump High jump
Sub-Inspector ( Exe) Male 6 min 30 secs - - 12 ft 3 ft 9 inch
Sub-Inspector ( Exe) Female - 4 mins 9 ft 3 ft

NOTE:

(i) For 1600/800 meters event only one chance will be given. For the remaining events viz Long Jump and High jump, the candidates will be given up to 2 chances each.

(ii) Ex-servicemen shall be exempted from PET, However, they will have to undergo PMT.

(iii) A Candidate must qualify in all Tests as per above norm to be eligible for consideration.

(iv) All the candidates qualifying in 1600 mtrs/800 mtrs will be measured for eligibility with respect to height and chest. Chest measurement will be taken only for male candidates. If a male candidate’s unexpanded chest measurement is below eligibility limit, expanded measurement shall not be taken and he shall be treated as disqualified.

(v) Male candidates who do not have minimum height shall not be considered for measurement of chest and shall be treated as disqualified.

(vi) Candidate who do not have minimum height, chest (unexpanded/expanded) shall be treated as having failed in PMT.

(vii) PET/PMT is qualifying in nature. No marks are to be awarded.

(viii) A grievance redressal cell will be set up for redressal of grievances related to Height and Chest measurements. 

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Syllabus) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Syllabus

(Syllabus) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Syllabus

Syllabus :

A. General Awareness (50 marks):

Questions will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society; to test knowledge of current events and such matters of everyday observations and experiences as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to Indian History, Art & Culture, Geography, Economics, General Polity, Indian Constitution, Sports, General Science etc

B. Arithmetic(35 marks):

Questions on Number systems, whole numbers, decimal and fractions and relationships between numbers, fundamental arithmetical operations, percentages, ratio and proportion, averages, interest, profit and loss, discount, use of table and graphs, mensuration, time and distance, ratio and proportion etc.

C. General Intelligence & reasoning(35 marks):

Questions on analogies, similarities and differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc.

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Computer Based Test) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) CBT

(Computer Based Test) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) CBT

Computer Based Test :

I) The date and time for CBT shall be held at different centres across the country simultaneously for all the Groups.

II) Candidates shall have following language options for Computer Based Test (CBT) out of which they shall have opt for any one. 

(1) Hindi (2) English (3) Urdu (4) Tamil (5) Telugu (6) Konkani (7) Malayalam (8) Kannada (9) Marathi (10) Gujurati (11) Bengali (12) Odia (13) Assamese (14) Manipuri and (15) Punjabi.

III) The standard of examination will be graduation level.

IV) Candidates will be required to answer all questions and shall be awarded 01(one) mark for each correct answer. Negative marks shall be awarded for every wrong answer. 1/3 marks shall be deducted for every wrong answer. No mark shall be awarded or deducted for questions not attempted.

V) Detailed instructions will be mentioned in the e-call letter for CBT regarding date, venue, reporting time, attendance, capture of biometric details, terminal/seat allotment etc.

VI) Candidates allowed to enter the examination hall/room will be required to mark presence as prescribed which will form the basis for the absentees’ statement. Signature and biometric thumb impressions of both thumbs of all candidates appearing will be obtained as proof of appearing in the CBT test.

VII) After entering respective halls/rooms, candidates will take their allotted seats. Candidates will be strictly prohibited from bringing into examination halls/rooms any book or part of book, paper, calculator, mobile phones, gadgets of any description or from communicating from each other or from communicating with any person outside the examination hall/room. CCTV surveillance /videography of every hall/room of the centre shall be conducted in such a manner that the face of the candidate is captured during the examination to obviate the possibility of impersonation.

VIII) Candidates will fill their roll numbers and other particulars as specified at the appropriate places provided for this purpose.

IX) No candidates will be allowed to leave the hall/room till the conclusion of the examination. After the examination is over, necessary follow-up action shall be ensured by Agency concerned as per instructions received from Chairman, Central Recruitment Committee.

X) It will be necessary to obtain 35% marks (30 % marks by SC and ST candidates) to qualify in the CBT.

XI) All the eligible candidates have to undergo a Computer Based Test on the specified date, time and venue as per the e-call letter to be downloaded by the candidates from the websites of Indian Railways. The information about the e-call letter download shall be communicated through the websites as well as personnel email communication to the candidates.

Total Duration : 90 min
No. of Questions: 120

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Recruitment Process) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI)

(Recruitment Process) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) 

Recruitment Process:

Only single online application has to be submitted by the candidate to the Employment Notice for the notified post through the link provided on the official website. The entire recruitment process shall involve a Computer Based Test (CBT), Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & Physical Measurement Test (PMT) and Document Verification (DV). The date, time and venue for all the activities, namely, CBT, PET, PMT and DV or any other additional activity, as applicable, shall be fixed by CRC and shall be intimated in due course. Request for postponement of any of the above activity or for change of venue, date and shift will not be entertained under any circumstances.

PHASE – I – COMPUTER BASED TEST ( CBT)

PHASE – II- PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TEST(PET) & PHYSICAL MEASUREMENT (PMT)

PHASE – III: DOCUMENT VERIFICATION

FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES:

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Reservation) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Reservation

(Reservation) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Reservation

Reservation :

I) This Employment Notification provides for Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST) and other Backward Class ( OBC)- Non Creamy Layer

( NCL), wherever applicable and admissible as mentioned in the vacancy table.

II) All candidates, irrespective of category may be considered against UR vacancies, subject to fulfilment of parameters for UR candidates. However against the vacancies earmarked for specific communities (SC/ST/OBC – NCL), candidates belonging to that category only will be considered.

III) For availing reservation, SC/ST/OBC-NCL, candidates should furnish at the time of document verification Caste Certificate from competent authorities as per the format given at Annexure – A ( for SC/ST candidates) and Annexure – B ( for OBC-NCL candidates).

IV) In case of OBC-NCL candidates, the certificates should specifically indicate that the candidate does not belong to the Persons/Sections ( Creamy Layer) mentioned in column 3 of the Schedule of the Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through O.M. No. 36033/3/2004- Estt(Res) dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017 and further revision if any received till the closing date of this Employment Notice. The candidate should ensure that he/she belongs to the OBC-Non Creamy Layer category while applying for the post against this notification. Such candidate should produce a valid OBC certificate in the prescribed format during DV. Further, in addition to the category certificate (OBC), a declaration in the prescribed format has to be furnished by the candidate during DV, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer. Unless, fulfilling all the eligibility norms of reserved category (OBC – NCL) a candidate will not be considered against vacancies of OBC category and the candidature/application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General ( Un-reserved) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancy only.

V) Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC-NCL who fulfil required Educational Qualification can also apply against UR vacancies. They will however, have to compete with the UR candidates and will not be eligible for any relaxation including age to such SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates applying against UR vacancies. However,  candidates have to indicate their actual category in the application.

VI) Category status as on the closing date of Employment Notice shall only be considered for availing reservation benefits if eligible and any change in the category status of the candidate there after shall not be entertained. 

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Examination Fee) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Examination Fee

(Examination Fee) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Examination Fee

Examination Fee:

Candidates applying for the post notified in this Employment Notice have to pay the prescribed fee as per their category detailed below:

S.No. Candidates Categories Fee
1 For all candidates except the fee concession categories mentioned below at Sl No. 2
* Rs. 400/- shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges on appearing in CBT.
Rs. 500/-
2 For candidates belonging to SC/ST/Ex-serviceman/Female/Minorities/Economically backward class. 
* This fee of Rs. 250/- shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges on appearing in CBT.
Rs. 250/-

Note: In the event of cancellation of notified vacancies, the examination fee will not be refunded.

Mode of Payment :

I) ONLINE fee payment through internet baking or debit/credit cards.
II) OFFLINE fee payment through
a) SBI Bank Challan payment mode in any branch of SBI.
b) Post office Challan Payment Mode in any branch of computerized Post Office.

The online payment will be allowed till 23.59 hrs of 02.07.2018 and offline payment will be allowed till 23.59 hrs of 05.07.2018 for candidates who register themselves till 23.59 hrs of 30.06.2018. However, registration will be confirmed only on payment of the fee.

III) All applicable service charges shall be borne by the candidates. If the fee is paid through offline mode viz (II) a) & b) above, the receipt should be preserved. The same should be produced on demand at the time of Document Verification (DV).

IV) Minorities include Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains and Zoroastrians (Parsis) subject to revision/deletion/inclusion, if any, received till the closing date of notification. Minority candidates claiming waiver of examination fee will be required to furnish, at the time of DV, “Minority Category Declaration” affidavit on non-judicial stamp paper that they belong to any of the above minority communities, failing which their candidature will be rejected.

V) Economically Backward Class ( EBC) candidates are those whose annual family income is less than Rs. 50,000/-. Such Candidates should have valid Income Certificate in the prescribed format or on the letterhead of the Issuing Authority to this effect. The certificate details should be filled in the online application and same should be submitted at the time of DV. Candidates having BPL card also eligible for fee concession under EBC and all these candidates seeking fee concession should fill in the relevant details in the ONLINE application.

VI) Candidates who appear in CBT will be eligible for fee refund. For exam fee refund (amount as applicable), they should provide details of beneficiary account viz. Beneficiary name, Bank name, and Account Number and IFSC code. Applications not accompanied with examination fee, wherever applicable, will be summarily rejected.

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Eligibility) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Eligibility

(Eligibility) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Eligibility

Eligibility :

  1. A candidate must be a citizen of India.
  2. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.
  3. Educational Qualification and age:
    Category Educational Qualification Age
    Min Max
    Sub Inspector ( Executive) Graduate from a recognized University. 20 25

    Note: Degree from a recognized University for Sub-Inspector (Executive) shall only be valid. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed educational qualification SHOULD NOT apply.

  4. Physical Measurement:
    Category Height (in CMs) Chest ( in CMs) ( Only for Male)
    Male Female Unexpanded Expanded
    UR/OBC 165 157 80 85
    SC/ST 160 152 76.2 81.2
    For Garhwalis, Gorkhas, Marathas, Dogras, Kumaonese and other Categories specified by Govt. 163 155 80 85
  5. Date of birth mentioned in matriculation or equivalent certificate alone shall be acceptable. The lower and upper age limit indicated in the Employment Notice will be reckoned as on 1st July 2018.

    The relaxation in upper age limit/maximum upper age for the following categories/ communities in the table below is applicable subject to submission of requisite certificates:

    S.No. Category Age relaxation permissible beyond upper age limit
    1 SC/ST Candidates 5 years
    2 OBC – Non Creamy Layer candidates 3 years
    3. Ex-servicemen candidates who have put in not less than 6 months continuous service after attestation. To the extent of service rendered in Armed Force plus UR – 3 years, OBC-Non-creamy Layer – 6 years. SC/ST – 8 years
    4. Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from 1st January 1980 to 31st December 1989 ( Unreserved) UR – 5 years OBC–Non-creamy layer - 8 years SC/ST – 10 years
    5. Central Govt. employees (Unreserved) other than ex-servicemen who have rendered not less than 3 years of regular & continuous service on date of reckoning. UR – 5 years OBC–Non-creamy layer - 8 years SC/ST – 10 years
    6. Widows, divorced women and women judicially separated from husband but remarried UR – 2 years OBC- Non-creamy layer – 5 years. SC/ST – 7 years
  6. Date of birth of candidates should be between the dates given below:
    (Both dates inclusive)
    S.No. Age Group Upper limit of Date of Birth ( Not earlier than) Lower limit of Date of Birth ( Not later than)
    UR OBC-Non Creamy Layer SC/ST For all category/category
    1. 20 to 25 02.07.93 02.07.90 02.07.88 01.07.98

 

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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(Vacancies) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Vacancies

(Vacancies) Railway Protection Force (RPF): Sub-Inspector(SI) Vacancies

RPF SI (Vacancies)

Group Zonal Railway Male Female
UR SC ST OBC Total UR SC ST OBC Total
A SR, SWR & SCR 75 9 21 21 126 29 5 9 9 52
B CR, WR, WCR & SECR 59 24 13 48 144 22 11 5 18 56
C ER, ECR, SER & ECoR 149 49 21 68 287 59 18 9 26 112
D NR, NER, NWR & NCR 96 36 10 31 173 39 14 4 12 69
E NFR 21 5 1 3 30 8 2 1 1 12
F RPSF 54 1 3 1 59 - - - - -
  Total 454 124 69 172 819 157 50 28 66 301

Note I: As per Govt of India instruction, the reservation for Ex-servicemen (ESM) shall be 10% of the combined vacancies of male and female of each group of zones.

Note II: Since the reservation for ESM and Female are horizontal in nature, vacancies remaining unfilled for want of suitable ESM and Females during recruitment shall be filled up by the suitable Male candidate as per existing guidelines.

Note III: Details of abbreviations:

CR= Central Railway, ER=Eastern Railway, ECoR=East Coast Railway, ECR=East Central Railway, NR=Northern Railway, NCR=North Central Railway, NER=North Eastern Railway, NFR=North East Frontier Railway, NWR=North Western Railway, SR=Southern Railway, SCR=South Central Railway, SER=South Eastern Railway, SECR=South East Central Railway, SWR=South Western Railway, WR=Western Railway, WCR=West Central Railway, UR=Un Reserved (General) SC=Scheduled Caste, ST=Scheduled Tribe, OBC=Other Backward Classess, ESM=Ex. Servicemen

Study Kit For RRB Railway Protection Force (RPF) Sub-Inspector (SI)

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RRB Group-D Exam Application Status

RRB Group-D Exam (Application Status)

Check RRB Group D Application Status by Following Below Steps:

  • Step-1: Click on the RRB Regional Link from the table below. 
  • Step-2: Enter Your Registration No., Date of Birth etc. 
  • Step-3: Click on Login
S.No. Name of Board Status
1 RRB Ahmedabad Check here
2 RRB Ajmer Check here
3 RRB Allahabad Check here
4 RRB Bengaluru Check here
5 RRB Bhopal Check here
6 RRB Bhubaneswar Check here
7 RRB Bilaspur Check here
8 RRB Chandigarh Check here
9 RRB Chennai Check here
10 RRB Gorakhpur Check here
11 RRB Guwahati Check here
12 RRB Kolkata Check here
13 RRB Mumbai Check here
14 RRB Patna Check here
15 RRB Ranchi Check here
16 RRB Secunderabad Check here

NEW RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Courtesy: RRB

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(JOBS) Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL) : Senior Clerk, Station Master and Various Recruitment-2018

(JOBS) Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL) :

Senior Clerk, Station Master and Various Recruitment-2018

ONLINE applications for the post of Non technical popular categories in Operating, Personnel, Accounts Departments of Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL) are invited from eligible candidates who are domicile of the states of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka OR Land loser candidates ie, those candidates whose land has been acquired for Konkan Railway project.

Separate panel will be prepared for land loser candidates and other than land loser candidates. Priority for appointment will be given to land loser candidates and only after exhausting the panel of eligible land loser candidates, the second panel (other than land losers) will be operated depending upon the shortfall in the vacancies notified

Post Name :

S N

Designation Medical Categories UR SC ST OBCNCL Total

ExSM

1 Station Master Aye-2 28 8 4 15 55

6

2 Goods Guard Aye-2 18 6 3 10 37

4

3 Accounts Assistant Cey-1 9 - 1 1 11

1

4 Senior Clerk Cey-1 5 3 2 - 10

1

Name and Number of posts for which recruitment is to be conducted along with reservation details are as under

Number of posts indicated above are provisional and may increase or decrease as per the requirement of KRCL. Accordingly, KRCL will publish Updated Vacancy again in its website indicating the revised vacancies This notification provides for Vertical Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST) and Other Backward Class-Non-Creamy Layer (OBCNCL). The notification provides for horizontal reservation for Ex-Servicemen (ExSM).

Pay Scale/Salary:

Station Master-Level 06 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix with other allowances as admissible under the CDA scale,

Goods Guard, Senior Clerk and Accounts Assistant---Level 05 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix with other allowances as admissible under the CDA scale

Qualification:

Candidates should have the Educational qualifications indicated for notified posts in the notification from recognized Institutes/ Universities/ Boards as on the closing date for submission of the ONLINE application. The details of academic qualifications are as under. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed educational/technical qualification SHOULD NOT apply.

  Name of Post

Qualification

  Station Master

Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University

  Goods Guard

Graduation in any Discipline from a recognised University.

  Senior Clerk

Graduationin any discipline from a recognised University.

* Candidates having degree of BBA/HR or MBA/HR will be preferred.

  Accounts Assistan

 

B Com from a recognised University.

(1) B Com candidates are eligible for all the four posts where as other than B. com Graduates are elgible for the posts of Station Master, Goods Guard and Senior Clerk. Eligibility will be subject to other criteria ie, medical fitness, merit position etc.

(2) Candidates having degree of BBA/HR or MBA/HR from recognised university /Institute who qualify in the CBT with prescribed qualifying mark will be preferred for the post of Sr Clerk over other candidates irrespective of their merit position. This will be subject to fullfillment of other laid down conditions and their preferences etc.

Age Limit:

18 to 33 years. The lower age limit is common for all the notified posts. The age shall be reckoned as on 01.07.2018. The relaxation in upper age limit for the following categories/ communities in the table below is applicable subject to submission of requisite certificates at the time of DV

Application Fee:

Candidates applying for the posts in this notification have to pay the prescribed fee as per their category detailed below:

SN

Candidate Categories

Fee

1 For all candidates except the fee concession categories mentioned below at Sl No 2

Rs. 500/-

2

For Candidates belonging to SC / ST / Ex-Serviceman / Female / Minorities / Economically backward class.

*This fee of Rs 250 shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges as applicable, on appearing CBT.

Rs. 250/-

Recruitment Process :

Candidate shall make online application only through the link provided on the official website of KRCL.

Recruitment process of SM shall involve -CBT, Aptitude test and DV. Eight times the number of posts notified in SM category, candidates who qualified in CBT shall be called for Aptitude test , Merrit list wiil be prepared for Candidates found suitable in aptitude test by giving 70% weightage to CBT marks and 30% weightage to Aptitude test marks. This will be followed by DV.

The recruitment process for other posts shall involve, CBT and DV. The date, time and venue for CBT and DV or any other additional activity as applicable shall be fixed by KRCL and shall be intimated to the eligible candidates. Request for any modification in this regard shall not be entertained.

a. CBT:

The CBT is tentatively scheduled in the month of June - 2018

The CBT is of screening nature and the standard of questions for the CBT will be generally in conformity with the educational standards as mentioned.

Negative Marking: There shall be negative marking for incorrect answers in CBT. 1/3rd of the marks allotted for each question shall be deducted for each wrong answer.

Electronic gadgets like Mobile phones, Bluetooth devices, pen drive, laptops, calculators, wrist watches or any other communication devices are strictly NOT allowed inside the exam hall. Any infringement of this instruction shall entail summary rejection besides legal action including debarment from future examinations.

Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones etc. to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safe keeping cannot be assured.

b. CBT- Qualifying Marks

The minimum percentage of marks required to qualify for further process shall be as follows for various categories: UR -50%, OBC-NCL/SC/ST – 40%.

c. CBT- Pattern and Syllabus

Duration: 90 Min,

No of Questions: 100

The questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to Common General Awareness which shall comprise 70% of the total questions , 20% on proficieency in English language and 10% on basic computer knowledge .

i. Common General Awareness:

i.i Mathematics

Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work; Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square Root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc.

i.ii General Intelligence and Reasoning

Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency, Conclusions and Decision Making, Similarities and Differences, Analytical reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement – Arguments and Assumptions etc.

i.iii General Science

The syllabus under this shall cover Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences of 10th standard level.

i.iv General awareness and current affairs in Science & Technology, Sports, History, GeographyCulture, Personalities, Economics, Politics and other subjects of importance.

ii. English: Knowledge of Grammar, comprehension etc of level 10th standard,

iii. Basic Computer knowledge: Microsoft word, Power point , Excel,Internet, email,trouble shooting etc.

How to Apply:

Preference of Post:

Candidates have to mention their order of preference for the posts while applying.

a. Candidates are advised to visit, only the official websites of KRCL and be very cautious about fake websites and job racketeers.

b. Candidates should ensure that they possess/fulfill all eligibility conditions prescribed for the post as on the closing date for submitting application. Candidates waiting for results of prescribed educational qualification should not apply.

c. One application ONLY is required to be submitted for the notified posts in this notification. Any attempt by a candidate to submit more than one application against this notification shall result in disqualification and debarment.

d. Eligibility of the candidates will be considered only on the strength of the information furnished in the ONLINE Application. If at any stage of recruitment or thereafter, it is found that any information furnished by the candidate in his/her application is false/incorrect or the candidate has suppressed any relevant information or the candidate does not satisfy the eligibility criteria for the post, his/her candidature will be rejected forthwith.

e. Read all the Information and Instructions detailed in the notification thoroughly before filling up of application by clicking the Link on the official websites of KRCL. It is essential that the candidate understands all information of the notification correctly to prevent any mistake while filling application.

f. Candidates should have their own mobile number , valid & active personal email id and keep them active for the entire duration of recruitment as KRCL shall send all recruitment related communications only through SMS and email till the recruitment is completely over. KRCL will not entertain any request for change of mobile number and e-mail address at any stage.

g. Candidates should enter their Name, Father's Name and Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/SSLC/High School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate ONLY.

h. In cases of name change, candidates should indicate their changed Name only in the ONLINE application. However, other details should match with the Matriculation or Equivalent certificate. Date of such change (or) application for such change should be prior to the date of submission of ONLINE application. Gazette Notification or any other legal document as applicable for such cases should be submitted at the time of DV.

i. In order to ensure speedy filling up of application by the candidates, they should keep ready the following documents in digital form before logging in to the application page. Candidate Photograph in colour: JPEG image of size upto 80KB Candidate signature in Blue/black ink only of size upto 50 KB

j. Candidates are further advised to visit website of KRCL frequently to get the latest information on various stages of recruitment process or any changes about this notification.

k. The onus is on the candidates to prove with valid documents that all the information submitted by them in the ONLINE application are true.

l. The candidates shall have to register their names. A registration number will be generated. This Registration number will be sent to the candidates mobile number. A link for filling application along with password will be sent to the candidate’s email address. On activation of this link, the candidate will get access to the application form.

m. Candidates are advised to keep a print of the application form generated with themselves, however, under no circumstances any Candidates should send any hard or soft copy of the application or any document to KRCL. The same should be produced only at the time of DV.

n. Candidates are advised to note and preserve their Registration Number for further stages of recruitment process / correspondence with KRCL.

o. To avoid last minute rush, candidates are advised in their own interest to submit ONLINE application much before the closing date since there may be a possibility of inability/failure to log on to the website on account of heavy load on the internet or website during last days.

Important Dates:

• Starting Date – 06-April-2018

• Last Date – 12-May-2018

• Fee Payment Last Date – 12-May-2018

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Courtesy: Konkan Railway Corporation Limited

RRB, Railway Exam Current Affairs Magazine - OCT 2017

RRB EXAM General Awareness Magazine

RRB Exam Current Affairs Magazine - (OCT 2017)

Click Here to Download Full Magazine

Issue : OCTOBER 2017

Size: 1,636 KB

File Type: PDF

Publisher : RRBPORTAL.COM

Price: Rs. 50, Free!

Content

  • National Issues

  • International Issues

  • Economy

  • Science & Technology

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RRB, Railway Exam Current Affairs Magazine - SEPT 2017

RRB EXAM General Awareness Magazine

RRB Exam Current Affairs Magazine - (SEPT 2017)

Click Here to Download Full Magazine

Issue : SEPTEMBER 2017

Size: 1.332 MB

File Type: PDF

Publisher : RRBPORTAL.COM

Price: Rs. 50, Free!

Content

  • National Issues

  • International Issues

  • Economy

  • Science & Technology

  • Sports

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(Alert) RRB Group-D Exam Last Date Extended

(Alert) RRB Group-D Exam Last Date Extended

Important Notice Regarding CEN 02/2018

Ministry of Railways have announced certain modifications in the conditions with respect to Age, Qualification, Exam language and Exam fee etc. Accordingly, the revised online application with the modified eligibility Shall be made available for submission of application from 28.02.2018 The closing date for submission of online application shall stand extended to 31.03.2018.

Click Here for Notification

NEW RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

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(Eligibility) RRB: Eligibility Criteria for Group-D Exam

(Eligibility) RRB: Eligibility Criteria for Group-D Exam

 

Age Limit:

CEN 02/2018 – Level-1 (erstwhile Group D)

(Age in years)

Community

Notified

Revised

UR

31

33

OBC

34

36

SC

36

38

ST

36

38

 

Educational Qualifications:

Candidates should have the Educational/Technical qualifications indicated against the notified posts in the CEN from recognized Board/NCVT/SCVT as on the closing date for submission of the ONLINE application. Refer to Annexure-A for the prescribed qualification against each of the posts. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed educational/technical qualification SHOULD NOT apply. Diploma/Degree in Engineering will not be accepted in lieu of course completed Act Apprenticeship / ITI. Also, Graduate Act Apprentice will not be accepted in lieu of Course Completed Act Apprenticeship.

Medical Standards :

Candidates called for DV will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s) conducted by the Railway Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit to carry out the duties connected with the post(s) opted by them. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteria of medical fitness of railway staff. The medical requirements against different medical standards for different categories are outlined below:

SL No. Medical Standard General Fitness Visual Acuity
1. A-2 Physically Fit in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/9 without glasses (No fogging test) Near Vision: Sn. 0.6,0.6 without glasses and must pass tests for Colour
Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision, Mesopic Vision etc

2. B-1 Physically Fit in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses (power of lenses not to exceed 4D) Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required and must pass test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision, Mesopic Vision etc

3. B-2 Physically Fit in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses (power of lenses not to exceed 4D). Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required and must pass test for Binocular Vision etc

4. C-1 Physically Fit in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/12, 6/18 with or without glasses. Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required.

 

NEW RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Courtesy : Indian Railway

(ALERT) Indian Railways Eases Eligibility for Grade-D recruitment 2018

(ALERT) Indian Railways Eases Eligibility for Grade-D recruitment 2018

Railways has made changes with respect to certain criteria so that more aspiring candidates from all sections of society get opportunity to serve the nation by working for Indian Railways. Age relaxation restored for various categories of candidates by further extending relaxation by 2 more years. For non-exempt candidates who have to pay Rs. 500/- as examination fees, Rs. 400/- will be refunded if they appear for the exam. Educational Qualifications criteria for Level I will be class 10th or ITI or equivalent, again for this exam. Question papers to candidates will be provided in 15 languages. Candidates can now make signature in any language instead of only in Hindi or English. 
 

Ministry of Railways has announced one of the world’s largest recruitment processes for 89,409 posts in Group C and Level I (Erstwhile Group D) and Level II Categories. Since this recruitment process is taking place after a gap of 4 years, many changes proposed in the intervening years had been included this time. However, some of these changes had restricted many candidates from applying this year without any adequate information in advance. Railways is also the lifeline of travel in India, and to provide the best service, its own staff should reflect the diversity and inclusiveness of the country.

Accordingly, Ministry of Railways has made changes with respect to certain criteria so that more aspiring candidates from all sections of society get opportunity to serve the nation by working for Indian Railways.

These changes include -

Age relaxation restored: 

Age restriction made many candidates who would normally have expected to be eligible to apply, ineligible. Therefore, age relaxation to various categories has been further extended by 2 years. Thus, revised age limit for applicants are as under:-

CEN 01/2018 – Asst. Loco Pilot (ALP) & Technician

(age in years)

Community

Notified

Revised

UR

28

30

OBC

31

33

SC

33

35

ST

33

35

CEN 02/2018 – Level-1 (erstwhile Group D)

(Age in years)

Community

Notified

Revised

UR

31

33

OBC

34

36

SC

36

38

ST

36

38

Examination fees :

Examination fees  were levied to discourage non-serious candidates who applying and do not appear for the exam. This would save the Railways substantial amount of resources spent on setting up infrastructure to enable candidates to appear for exams. Examination fees for recruitment were fixed at Rs. 500/- for non-exempted candidates.  It is now decided that Rs. 400/- will be refunded to those candidates who appear for the exam. To enable refund of this amount, candidates will be required to submit details of their bank accounts online. This facility will be executed shortly. Exempted categories like SC / ST / Divyang / Ex-servicemen / Women / Minorities / Economically Backward Classes will be charged Rs. 250/-. The whole of this amount will be refunded to those candidates from these categories who appear for the exam. These fees will ensure only serious candidates appear.

Educational Qualifications:

 Minimum educational qualifications for all Level I posts were class 10th or ITI or equivalent till July, 2017.  In July, 2017 for many of these Level I posts, criteria was changed to class 10th and ITI or equivalent. This was not known the people in advance and was unfair to candidates who had been preparing over the past years for this recruitment. Candidates would have got a chance to acquire the required certifications and qualifications had they been given adequate advance notice. Therefore, it has now been decided that for this exam, criteria will be class 10th or ITI or equivalent, again.  This will enable more candidates to apply for the posts and ensure wider participation. In addition, Railways has planned further training programmes to ensure better skills for staff.

Language:

Question papers to candidates will be provided in 15 languages – Hindi, English, Urdu, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Telugu. This will ensure opportunities for candidates across India.

Signature: 

Candidates can now make signature in any language instead of only in Hindi or English. This will adequately reflect the diversity and plurality of India.

Click Here for Official Notification

NEW Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

(Paper) RRB Bhopal : Goods Guard Solved Paper-2008

(Paper)RRB Bhopal : Goods Guard Solved Paper-2008

1. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as Horse Latitudes lies between
(a) 00 and 150
(b) 200 and 250
(c) 300 and 350
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) 300 and 350


2. Zimbobwe was formerly known as
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans: ( a ) Rhodesia


3. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Bonn - Danube
(b) Baghdad - Tigris
(c) Rome - Seice
(d) Paris - Tiber
Ans: ( b ) Baghdad - Tigris


4. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) Kiel Canal


5. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans: ( d ) Tapti


6. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab
Ans: ( c ) Jhelum


7. The Shompens are the tribal people of
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Nicobar


8. Match the following
A. Manas I. Hangul
B. Dachigam II. Elephant
C. Mudumalai III. Tiger
D. Kaziranga IV. Rhinoceros
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I II IV
(c) II IV III I
(d) I III IV II
Ans: ( b ) III I II IV


9. In India, Plan holiday was after
(a) China-India war of 1962
(b) Draught of 1966
(c) Pakistan war of 1971
(d) Pakistan war of 1965
Ans: ( b ) Draught of 1966


10. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: ( d ) Trivandrum


11. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600


12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans: ( b ) 90


13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are graduates ?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans: ( c ) 180


14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: ( a ) Habeas Corpus


15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territories may be established by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of State
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: ( b ) Parliament by making law


16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) M. C. Setalvad
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B. N. Rau
Ans: ( d ) B. N. Rau


17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of architecture first developed in
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans: ( a ) Italy


18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay-Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans: ( d ) East Bengal


19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai Khidmatgars
(d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu
Ans: ( c ) Khudai Khidmatgars


20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: ( c ) Mizoram


21. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Gulbarga - Karnataka
(b) Midnapur - Gujarat
(c) Wardha - Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin - Tamil Nadu
Ans: ( a ) Gulbarga - Karnataka


22. U Thant Award is given for
(a) Contribution to east-west understanding
(b) Community leadership
(c) Social service
(d) Journalism
Ans: ( c ) Social service


23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans: ( a ) South Africa


24. The first electric railway was opened in
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans: ( d ) 1925


25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(c) Golf
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Snooker

26. The Lord of Rings : The Return of the King? won Oscar award in how many categories ?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: ( c ) 11


27. As per Census 2001, which of the following States has the lowest density of population ?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans: ( d ) Mizoram


28. Which of the following is the latest Tank ?
(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim Ans: ( c ) Arjun


29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?
(a) Encephalitis - Brain
(b) Colitis - Colon
(c) Hepatitis - Liver
(d) Jaundice - Throat
Ans: ( d ) Jaundice - Throat


30. Which of the following type of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum products ?
(a) Rayan Silk
(b) Terelyne
(c) Nylon
(d) Cotton
Ans: ( c ) Nylon


31. The function of haemoglobin in the body is
(a) Transport of oxygen
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans: ( a ) Transport of oxygen


32. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population ?
(a) Lung?s disease
(b) Cirrhasis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans: ( c ) Hookworm infection


33. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops ?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans: ( d ) None of these


34. Which one of the following grows under the tree ?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans: ( c ) Peanuts


35. Which of the following is an example of a plant that bears seeds but not fruits ?
(a) Cotton Plant
(b) Peepal tree
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans: ( c ) Eucalyptus tree


36. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans: ( b ) Thorium


37. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans: ( b ) Real and inverted


38. In increasing sequence, the major elements present in the human body are
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans: ( a ) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus


39. A light sensitive compound used in photography is
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans: ( c ) Silver bromide


40. Protective foods in our diet are
(a) Fats and vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates and minerals
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Proteins and carbohydrates
Ans: ( d ) Proteins and carbohydrates


41. The ancient name of Bengal was
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(c) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans: ( c ) Gauda


42. Ahilyabai was the queen of
(a) Gwaliar
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans: ( a ) Gwaliar


43. Morish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of
(a) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(b) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(c) Balban
(d) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq
Ans: ( d ) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq


44. The relics of Indus Valley Civilisation indicates that the main occupation of the people was
(a) Agriculture
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Commerce
(d) Hunting
Ans: ( c ) Commerce


45. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the king of Dynasty -
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallava
(d) Kushana
Ans: ( c ) Pallava


46. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855
Ans: ( b ) 1853


47. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called
(a) Mahabhiniskraman
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mahamastakabhisheka
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans: ( d ) Dharmachakrapravartan


48. The political and cultural center of the Pandyas was
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans: ( b ) Madurai


49. What is the correct chronological order of the dynasties in which they invaded India ?
1. Huns 2. Kushanas
3. Aryans 4. Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans: ( b ) 3, 4, 2, 1


50. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law ?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghvarsa
(c) Vijnaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans: ( c ) Vijnaneswara

61. The black hole theory was discovered by
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Gobind Khorana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujan
Ans: ( a ) S. Chandrasekhar


62. The main contribution of the Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in
(a) Systematic provincial administration
(b) A well planned revenue system
(c) A well organized central government
(d) An organized local self government
Ans: ( d ) An organized local self government


63. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga ?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans: ( d ) Ballabhacharya


64. Which of the following battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler of India ?
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans: ( b ) Panipat II


65. The Vedas contain all the truth? was interpreted by
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Swami Shraddhanand
(d) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: ( b ) Swami Dayanand


66. Babur entered India for the first time from the west through
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sind
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: ( b ) Sind


67. Which was the first among the following ?
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans: ( d ) Double Government


68. The name of Lord Cornwallis is associated with the
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans: ( d ) Permanent settlement


69. Sir Charles Wood?s Despatch of 1854 delat with
(a) Administrative reforms
(b) Social reforms
(c) Economic reforms
(d) Educational reforms
Ans: ( d ) Educational reforms


70. The sea route to India was discovered by the
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans: ( c ) Portuguese


71. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Ashvaghosa - Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan
(c) Harisena - Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa - Samudragupta
Ans: ( b ) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan


72. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because
(a) Battle of Plassey started
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans: ( d ) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence


73. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 192
(d) 1923
Ans: ( b ) 1919


74. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts ?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) 1909


75. Abhinav Bharat was organized by
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) Vir Savarkar

76. On 22nd December, which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night ?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Chennai
Ans: ( a ) Melbourne

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RRB Goods Guard Exam Syllabus

RRB : Goods Guard Exam

Goods Guard Syllabus :

  • General Awareness, Arithmetic, General Intelligence and reasoning.
  • The Questions will be of objective type with multiple answers
  • The question paper will be in English, Hindi, Urdu and regional languages
  • duration of the examination will be 90 minutes with approximately 100 to 120 questions.

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(Notification) RRB Goods Guard Exam

(Notification) RRB Goods Guard Exam

Profile :

Goods Guard are incharge of Cargo Train and trained for working as a care taker of a goods train.

Pay Scale :

  • 5200-20200 GP 2800

Educational Qualification :

  • Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

Age Limit :

  • 18 to 33 year.
  • The upper age limit is relaxable as under subject to submission of requisite certificate.
  • By 5 years for SC/ST candidates.
  • By 3 years for OBC candidates.

Pattern of Exam :

  1. Common Preliminary Examination.
  2. Main (second stage) Exam followed by Verification of documents.

Syllabus :

  • General Awareness, Arithmetic, General Intelligence and reasoning.
  • The Questions will be of objective type with multiple answers
  • The question paper will be in English, Hindi, Urdu and regional languages and the duration of the examination will be 90 minutes with approximately 100 to 120 questions.

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(Vacancy List) RRB : Group-D Exam

(Vacancy List) RRB : Group-D Exam

Vacancy List :

RRB POST NAME UR SC ST OBC TOTAL CCAA Ex-SM VH OH HH
Ahmedabad HELPER / ELECTRICAL / AC 86 28 30 78 222 44 44 0 11 18
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 74 23 12 41 150 30 30 0 7 13
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 18 6 8 15 47 10 10 0 3 4
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 54 17 9 31 111 22 22 0 5 11
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 53 14 9 27 103 20 20 0 5 10
HELPER / BRIDGE 106 32 15 55 208 42 42 0 0 0
HELPER / P WAY 51 15 7 29 102 20 20 0 0 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 21 6 3 11 41 8 8 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1441 423 210 757 2831 566 566 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 411 122 60 221 814 163 163 0 40 72
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 31 10 5 17 63 13 13 0 3 5
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 24 8 3 14 49 10 10 0 2 5
HELPER / S and T 204 56 35 101 396 79 79 0 18 35
HELPER / SIGNAL 12 4 2 6 24 5 5 0 1 2
HELPER / MEDICAL 7 2 1 3 13 2 2 1 0 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 3 1 0 2 6 1 1 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 359 104 53 191 707 141 141 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 101 30 15 54 200 40 40 0 0 0
Ajmer HELPER / ELECTRICAL / AC 28 8 4 15 55 11 11 0 1 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 259 77 38 137 511 102 102 0 3 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 3 1 1 2 7 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / CIVIL 12 3 1 1 17 3 3 0 0 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 15 0 1 0 16 3 3 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1541 430 222 705 2898 492 492 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 203 59 29 109 400 79 79 0 3 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 11 3 2 6 22 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 18 5 4 10 37 7 7 0 1 0
HELPER / S and T 56 16 6 28 106 21 21 0 1 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 9 2 2 4 17 3 3 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 218 64 32 116 430 86 86 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 120 36 18 65 239 48 48 0 0 0
Allahabad HELPER / ELECTRICAL / AC 2 1 0 1 4 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 48 13 6 3 70 14 14 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 29 9 5 16 59 12 12 0 1 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 8 3 1 4 16 3 3 0 1 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 90 28 11 29 158 32 32 0 3 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 98 30 10 31 169 33 33 0 2 1
HELPER / BRIDGE 30 8 11 9 58 12 12 0 0 0
HELPER / P WAY 11 3 2 4 20 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / WORKS 76 23 11 41 151 30 30 0 3 2
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1297 376 188 648 2509 502 502 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 202 59 30 108 399 80 80 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 30 9 4 16 59 12 12 0 0 0
HELPER MECHANICAL (POWER) 3 1 0 2 6 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / S and T 93 26 0 23 142 28 28 0 0 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 45 14 7 24 90 18 18 0 3 0
HELPER / TELECOMMUNICATION 23 7 4 13 47 10 10 0 1 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 26 8 8 12 54 10 10 0 1 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 386 104 49 143 682 136 136 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 36 14 5 14 69 14 14 0 0 0
Bengaluru HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 51 15 8 27 101 20 20 0 2 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 19 5 3 10 37 7 7 0 0 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 4 12 3 17 36 7 7 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 702 209 104 373 1388 278 278 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 208 50 20 80 358 72 72 0 1 1
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 9 3 2 5 19 3 3 0 2 1
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 8 3 1 5 17 3 3 0 2 1
HELPER / S and T 31 9 5 15 60 12 12 0 3 1
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 5 1 1 2 9 2 2 3 3 3
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 119 34 17 62 232 46 46 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 28 5 3 0 36 7 7 0 0 0
Bhopal HELPER / ELECTRICAL / AC 10 2 4 6 22 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 23 7 4 13 47 9 9 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 17 2 5 11 35 7 7 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 40 13 12 28 93 18 18 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 1 0 4 0 5 1 1 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1031 306 153 551 2041 408 408 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 290 79 69 175 613 122 122 0 0 0
HELPER / S and T 53 14 10 31 108 21 21 0 1 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 50 15 7 26 98 20 20 0 0 0
HELPER / MEDICAL 0 1 1 1 3 1 1 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 138 18 9 55 220 44 44 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 119 36 18 64 237 47 47 0 0 0
Bhubaneswar HELPER / ELECTRICAL / AC 1 3 6 2 12 2 2 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 9 3 7 4 23 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 53 19 14 7 93 18 18 0 3 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 14 5 3 1 23 5 5 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 502 139 65 231 937 187 187 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 78 38 40 27 183 37 37 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 1 0 1 1 3 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 2 1 2 2 7 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 25 9 5 17 56 11 11 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 38 11 6 21 76 15 15 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 60 17 9 33 119 24 24 0 0 0
Bilaspur HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 3 3 1 1 8 2 2 0 0 2
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 12 4 2 7 25 5 5 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 7 0 1 9 17 3 3 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 449 135 68 243 895 179 179 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 60 15 9 29 113 23 23 0 1 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 3 1 0 2 6 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / S and T 7 1 1 4 13 3 3 0 0 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 13 3 2 12 30 6 6 0 1 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 11 2 0 4 17 3 3 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 22 4 3 6 35 7 7 0 0 0
Chandigarh HELPER / ELECTRICAL (WORKSHOP) 16 4 2 8 30 4 4 0 1 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / AC 27 8 4 15 54 10 10 0 1 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 121 35 17 64 237 46 46 0 3 3
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 2 1 0 1 4 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 42 12 6 22 82 15 15 0 0 0
HELPER / BRIDGE 89 26 13 47 175 35 35 0 0 0
HELPER / P WAY 11 2 2 6 21 4 4 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1965 584 294 1051 3894 777 777 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL 282 84 42 151 559 109 109 0 7 6
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 607 181 90 326 1204 239 239 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 19 6 3 10 38 6 6 0 1 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 77 23 11 41 152 29 29 0 4 0
HELPER MECHANICAL (POWER) 10 3 1 5 19 3 3 0 0 0
HELPER / S and T (WORKSHOP) 42 12 6 22 82 16 16 0 1 1
HELPER / SIGNAL 96 29 13 50 188 36 36 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 347 104 54 187 692 137 137 0 0 0
GATEMAN 132 39 21 69 261 52 52 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 70 21 11 38 140 28 28 0 0 0
Chennai HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 69 18 20 38 145 29 29 0 1 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 91 27 14 48 180 36 36 0 3 2
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 952 279 170 458 1859 372 372 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 280 58 67 68 473 95 95 0 8 6
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 17 5 6 7 35 8 8 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 13 3 2 7 25 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 32 10 11 17 70 14 14 0 0 0
HELPER / TELECOMMUNICATION 8 2 1 4 15 3 3 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 88 29 41 19 177 36 36 0 0 0
Gorakhpur HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 85 23 25 33 166 33 33 0 1 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 48 14 7 26 95 19 19 0 1 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 16 4 2 8 30 6 6 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 18 5 3 9 35 7 7 0 0 0
HELPER / BRIDGE 15 5 2 8 30 6 6 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 909 271 135 486 1801 360 360 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 163 48 24 86 321 64 64 0 1 1
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 32 10 5 18 65 13 13 0 1 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 7 2 1 4 14 3 3 0 0 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 47 11 19 60 137 27 27 0 1 0
HELPER / MEDICAL 14 4 1 7 26 5 5 0 0 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 15 6 3 9 33 6 6 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 137 42 21 75 275 55 55 0 0 0
GATEMAN 115 35 18 62 230 46 46 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 65 20 10 35 130 26 26 0 0 0
Guwahati HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 38 12 6 20 76 15 15 0 0 3
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 36 11 5 20 72 14 14 0 0 2
HELPER / BRIDGE 51 15 8 28 102 20 20 0 0 0
HELPER / CIVIL (WORKSHOP) 4 1 0 2 7 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 17 5 3 9 34 7 7 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 869 257 129 464 1719 345 345 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL 14 4 3 7 28 6 6 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 22 7 4 12 45 9 9 0 0 1
HELPER / SIGNAL 23 7 3 12 45 9 9 0 0 1
HELPER / TELECOMMUNICATION 15 3 1 6 25 5 5 0 0 0
HELPER / MEDICAL 13 2 2 8 25 5 5 0 0 1
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 12 3 1 6 22 4 4 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 152 46 24 82 304 61 61 0 0 0
GATEMAN 38 11 4 20 73 14 14 0 0 0
Kolkata HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 3 2 4 10 19 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 5 8 4 13 30 6 6 0 0 1
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1066 319 163 580 2128 426 426 0 0 0
HELPER / S and T 25 7 13 25 70 14 14 0 0 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 4 5 5 0 14 2 2 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 38 10 11 17 76 15 15 0 0 0
GATEMAN 10 3 2 7 22 4 4 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 4 1 1 2 8 2 2 0 0 0
Mumbai HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 53 8 9 25 95 19 19 0 4 11
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 38 11 6 20 75 15 15 0 3 3
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 81 19 14 42 156 31 31 0 10 8
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 157 47 29 104 337 67 67 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 108 30 19 60 217 43 43 0 6 4
HELPER / P WAY 16 5 2 8 31 6 6 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1114 328 164 594 2200 440 440 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 282 86 67 147 582 116 116 0 5 11
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 1 1 2 1 5 1 1 0 1 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 31 9 5 15 60 12 12 0 9 0
HELPER / S and T 34 10 6 18 68 14 14 0 3 2
HELPER / SIGNAL 14 4 2 6 26 5 5 0 0 0
HELPER / MEDICAL 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 51 14 17 12 94 19 19 5 6 6
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 340 103 51 184 678 136 136 0 0 0
Patna HELPER / ELECTRICAL (WORKSHOP) 8 2 2 4 16 3 3 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 23 7 3 12 45 9 9 0 1 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 82 24 12 43 161 33 33 0 3 2
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 35 11 5 19 70 14 14 0 1 1
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 52 15 9 28 104 20 20 0 2 2
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 24 8 4 14 50 10 10 0 1 1
HELPER / BRIDGE 41 13 8 22 84 17 17 0 0 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 71 21 11 38 141 28 28 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1747 518 260 934 3459 693 693 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL 13 4 2 7 28 6 6 0 0 3
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 243 74 35 131 483 96 96 0 11 3
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 24 7 3 12 46 9 9 0 1 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 22 7 3 12 44 9 9 0 1 0
HELPER / S and T 9 3 1 6 19 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / S and T (WORKSHOP) 88 26 13 47 174 35 35 0 4 1
HELPER / SIGNAL 46 14 7 25 92 19 19 0 0 1
HELPER / TELECOMMUNICATION 10 3 2 5 20 4 4 0 0 0
PORTER / HAMAL / SWEEPER CUM PORTER 478 142 70 255 945 189 189 0 0 0
Ranchi HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 13 8 3 12 36 7 7 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / POWER 6 2 2 5 15 3 3 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRAIN LIGHTING 4 2 1 3 10 2 2 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 35 16 7 18 76 15 15 0 0 0
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 70 31 11 38 150 29 29 0 0 0
HELPER / P WAY 3 1 0 0 4 1 1 0 0 0
HELPER / TRACK MACHINE 21 6 3 11 41 8 8 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 547 161 80 286 1074 215 215 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 192 83 44 116 435 87 87 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 11 3 1 5 20 4 4 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 15 4 1 7 27 5 5 0 0 0
HELPER / SIGNAL 59 19 9 27 114 23 23 0 0 0
HELPER / TELECOMMUNICATION 17 5 3 10 35 7 7 0 0 0
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 6 0 0 1 7 1 1 0 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 241 85 32 123 481 96 96 0 0 0
Secunderabad HELPER / ELECTRICAL / GENERAL SERVICES 85 23 13 44 165 32 32 0 9 9
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRD 84 24 13 44 165 32 32 0 9 9
HELPER / ELECTRICAL / TRS 41 11 6 21 79 15 15 0 4 5
HELPER / BRIDGE 59 19 8 33 119 23 23 0 0 0
HELPER / P WAY 95 28 14 51 188 35 35 0 0 0
TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 1986 593 297 1064 3940 786 786 0 0 0
HELPER / MECHANICAL / CARRIAGE and WAGON 227 70 35 119 451 88 88 0 24 23
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL ELECTRICAL 27 8 5 14 54 9 9 0 3 3
HELPER / MECHANICAL / DIESEL MECHANICAL 87 25 14 46 172 34 34 0 10 9
HELPER / S and T 120 35 17 65 237 46 46 0 11 12
HELPER / SIGNAL 8 2 2 4 16 3 3 0 1 1
HOSPITAL ATTENDANT 27 8 4 14 53 10 10 53 0 0
ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 408 170 102 204 884 175 175 0 0 0

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

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(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-3

(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-3

102. 6.7 + 9(8-(2.6+1.5) + 12) = ?

(1) 13.6

(2) 31.6

(3) 143.1

(4) 149.8

103. The highest prize in literature of Indian government is

(1) Literature Prize

(2) Lalit Kala Puraskar

(3) Dada Saheb Phalke Puraskar

(4) Jnanpith Puraskar

104. The area of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm. is

(1) 12.5 cm2

(2) 22.5 cm2

(2) 28.5 cm2

(4) 38.5 cm2

105. A sum of Rs. 6300 was lent at 5% rate of interest for 9 years. The simple interest will be

(1) Rs. 1840

(2) Rs. 1942

(3) Rs. 2742

(4) Rs. 2835

106. In the following the Belghar wild- life sanctuary is known for

(1) Crocodile

(2) Elephants

(3) Tigers

(4) None of these

107. International Gandhi Prize 2006 was given to

(1) Kofi Annan

(2) Desmond Tutu

(3) Yohi Sasakava

(4) Sunderial Bahuguna

108. The player of tournament of World Cup Cricket 2007 was

(1) Graeme Smith

(2) Muttaih Muralitharan

(3) Rahul Dravid

(4) Gelnn McGrath

109. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is Rs. 630, the sum is

(1) Rs. 1000

(2) Rs. 2000

(3) Rs. 3000

(4) Rs. 4000

110. The largest gland in human body to secrete bile is

(1) Gall bladder

(2) Liver

(3) Skin

(4) Pancreas

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111. The deepest lake of Asia is

(1) Rengali

(2) Pulicut

(3) Chilka

(4) Baikal

112. Chalk : Lime : : Coal : ?

(1) Carbon

(2) Fire

(3) Oven

(4) Chimney

113. Oriss is a chief producer of

(1) Wheat

(2) Cotton

(3) Pulse

(4) Jute

114. Which of the following is known for Bali journey?

(1) Cuttak

(2) Paradip

(3) Gopalpur

(4) Jajpur

115. In how many years will the simple interest on Rs. 6900 at the rate of 4% per annum be Rs. 2484?

(1) 4 years

(2) 7 years

(3) 9 years

(4) 12 years

116. In Forbes list, the richest man in the world is

(1) L.N. Mittal

(2) Bill Gates

(3) Queen Elizabeth

(4) George Bush

117. Jayadev belonged to

(1) Kakinada

(2) Machhalipatnam

(3) Vijaywada

(4) Puri

118. The study of heredity is called

(1) Anatomy

(2) Cytology

(3) Psychology

(4) Genetics

119. The last matches of Afro- Asian cricket championship were held in

(1) India

(2) Pakistan

(3) South Africa

(4) Kenya

120. Who is the first Indian spaceman?

(1) Homi Bhabha

(2) Rakesh Sharma

(3) Kalpana Chawla

(4) Sunita Williams

121. Which city hosted the Arab league conference?

(1) Dubai

(2) Muscat

(3) Riyadh

(4) Doha

122. If STORMY is coded as QVMTKA, then WINTER will be coded as

(1) UGLRCO

(2) UKLVCT

(3) XKNVDT

(4) XKLCVO

123. Barabat fort is situated at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Khurda

(3) Warangal

(4) Ahmedabad

124. The Commonwealth Games- 2010 will be held in

(1) Colombo

(2) Canberra

(3) New Delhi

(4) Dhaka

125. The dimensions of a rectangular hall are 5m x 4m x 3m. A window occupies an area of 4m2 . Without window the area of walls is

(1) 50m2

(2) 54m2

(3) 56m2

(4) 60m2

126. The nature of carbon dioxide is

(1) Inflammable

(2) Smellless

(3) Yellowish

(4) Sour

127. The largest store of bauxite has been found in the district of

(1) Nellore

(2) Engule

(3) Vishakhapattnam

(4) Tulcher

128. X starts for his office and walks 500m straight and turns left and walks 300m. he again turns left and walks 500m. he then turns right to walk 900m. How far is he from his office?

(1) 1000 m

(2) 1000 m

(3) 1200 m

(4) 1300 m

129. Which of the following is a non-metallic element?

(1) Mercury

(2) Manganese

(3) Carbon

(4) Gold

130. In respect of territorial area, the state of Andhra Pradesh is placed at

(1) Third

(2) Fourth

(3) Fifth

(4) Sixth

131. The recently discovered earthlike planet has been named ______ by the European scientists.

(1) NW 581C

(2) EU 581C

(3) PL 581C

(4) GL 581C

132. Karnam Malleswari is related to

(1) Weightlifting

(2) Wrestling

(3) Shotput

(4) Long jump 14

133. 300 men can do a work in 16 days. To do of the work in 15 days the number of men required is

(1) 80

(2) 75

(3) 60

(4) 45

134. The south- west monsoon starts during

(1) May- June

(2) June- July

(3) July - August

(4) August- September

135. The chairman of the Planning Commission in India is

(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(2) Arjun Singh

(3) P. Chidambaram

(4) Pranab Mukherjee

136. Salarjung museum is located in

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata

(4) Ahmedabad

137. The chief foodgrain crop of Andhra Pradesh is

(1) Ragi

(2) Jowar

(3) Wheat

(4) Rice

138. If DEADLY is coded as GHDGOB, then MOTIVE will be coded as

(1) OQVKXG

(2) NPUJWF

(3) PRWLYH

(4) QSXMZI

139. If A : B = 2 :1 and B :C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C =?

(1) 2 : 6 : 5

(2) 2 : 7 : 5

(3) 4 :10 : 7

(4) 12 : 6 : 5

140. The state with lowest area is

(1) Lakshadwip

(2) Pudicherry

(3) Goa

(4) Delhi

141. 47 kmph is equivalent to

(1) 10.03 m/s

(2) 11.04 m/s

(3) 13.05 m/s

(4) 14.06 m/s

142. Rocket is launched from

(1) Balasore

(2) Sri Harikota

(3) Trombay

(4) Siachen

143. Who is the President of Afghanistan?

(1) Pervez Musharraf

(2) Hamid Karzai

(3) M. Ahmedinejad

(4) M. Abbaas

144. The first novelist of Orissa is

(1) Faqir Mohan Senapti

(2) Gopinath Mohanty

(3) Anant Patnaik

(4) Manoj Das

145. A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and then allows a discount of 10%. His gain per cent is

(1) 8%

(2) 10%

(3) 12%

(4) 14%

146. The outermost layer of earth’s atmosphere is

(1) Troposphere

(2) Lithosphere

(3) Mesosphere

(4) lonosphere

147. X, Y and Z can complete a work in 7, 14 and 28 days respectively. They together can complete the work in

(1) 4 days

(2) 8 days

(3) 12 days

(4) 16 days

148. A 140m long train is moving at 70 kmph. It will cross a man running at 4 kmph in the same direction of train in

(1) 4.63 seconds

(2) 5.63 seconds

(3) 6.63 seconds

(4) 7.63 seconds

149. 25m is what per cent of 7.5 km?

(1) 33%

(2) 3.3%

(3) 0.33%

(4) 0.03%

150. A tap can fill a tank in 8 minutes and an other tap can empty the tank in 16 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, the tank will be filled in

(1) 8 minutes

(2) 16 minutes

(3) 20 minutes

(4) 24 minutes

Answer Keys :

101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (4) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1) 126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3) 131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1) 141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (1) 146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (4) 149. (3) 150. (1)

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

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(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-2

(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-2

51. The telegraphic code was invented by

(1) S.F.B. Morse

(2) Arcwright

(3) Thomas Addison

(4) G.Marconi

52. In a sum of Rs. 11.70, the coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 5 paise and 5 paise are in the ratio 3: 5 :7. Find the number of 50 paise coins.

(1) 6

(2) 10

(3) 14

(4) 20

53. Which place is famous for Jain caves ?

(1) Eilora

(2) Khandgiri

(3) Kapilash

(4) Sarnath

54. The first successful synchronous satellite of India is

(1) SLV

(2) APPLE

(3) ROHINI

(4) INSAT

55. Find the missing number in the following matrix.

2

5

?

10

5

50

5

4

20

(1) 10

(2) 15

(3) 20

(4) 25

56. Which of the following places is famous for thermal power plant ?

(1) Hirakud

(2) Manipal

(3) Polavaram

(4) Talcher

57. Indira Gandhi Zoological park is located in

(1) Vishakhapatnam

(2) Gyderabad

(3) Puri

(4) Bhubaneshwar

58. The universal blood donor is

(1) Group "Aa"

(2) Group "Ba"

(3) Group "AB"

(4) Group "O"

59. Which state is the biggest producer of cotton ?

(1) Kerala

(2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Maharashtra

60. The VIBGYOR spectrum is related to

(1) Light

(2) Sound

(3) Motion

(4) Energy

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61. Who invented telephone ?

(1) Graham Bell

(2) K.G. Gillete

(3) Wright brothers

(4) E. Torricelli

62. A man sells an article for Rs. 3550 and loses 19%. The cost price of the article is

(1) Rs. 4283

(2) Rs. 4350

(3) Rs. 4383

(4) Rs. 4450

63. The largest number which divides 411.752 and 1031 leaving remainder 8 in each case, is

(1) 8

(2) 11

(3) 21

(4) 31

64. The pilotless aircraft developed by DRDO whichis targeted, is

(1) Tejas

(2) Vijay

(3) Lakshya

(4) Varun

65. The first Indian woman justice of Supreme Court of India is

(1) Kiran Bedi

(2) Brinda Karat

(3) Fatima Bibi

(4) Mohini Giri

66. The instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquake is

(1) Dynamometer

(2) Seismograph

(3) Fathometer

(4) Magnetometer

 

67. The LCM of 2457,,,39612 and is

(1) 118

(2) 136

(3) 359

(4) 1403

68. The first train in India was inaugurated in

(1) 1753

(2) 1784

(3) 1853

(4) 1857

69. The calculating machine was invented by

(1) Pascal

(2) Bill Gates

(3) Issac Newton

(4) Goodyear

70. A man travels for 4 hours. The half of the journey is covered by bus at 40 kmph and the remaining at 30 kmph by scooter. What distance did he cover?

(1) 17.5 km

(2) 37.14 km

(3) 137.14 km

(4) 117.5 km

71. Who is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission in India?

(1) S.Rajendra Babu

(2) V.N. Kaul

(3) U.S. Mishra

(4) R.C. Lahouti

72. The urban population is most in

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Karnataka

(4) Maharashtra

73. Who wrote a "Abhigyan Shakuntalam" ?

(1) Charak

(2) Harisen

(3) Bann Bhatta

(4) Kalidas

74. A man buys 8 mangoes for Rs. 9 and sells them at 9 mangoes for Rs. 8. his gain or loss per cent is

(1) 10.18% loss

(2) 10.18% gain

(3) 20.98% loss

(4) 20.98% gain

75. Which is understood best for conducting electricity?

(1) Radiators

(2) Conductors

(3) Vectors

(4) Regulators

76. The other name of evergreen forests is

(1) Deciduous forests

(2) Tropical forests

(3) Alpine forests

(4) None of these

77. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(1) 18

(2) 20

(3) 22

(4) 24

78. Lignite is found in abundance in

(1) Orissa

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Karnataka

79. The western seacoast in India is known as

(1) Coromandal

(2) Malabar

(3) Palk Strait

(4) Konkan

80. The river called China sorrow is

(1) Yang te

(2) Hwang Ho

(3) Three Gorges

(4) Shinago

81. Fraction 32 is equivalent to what per cent?

(1) 55%

(2) 75%

(3) 150%

(4) 175%

82. On January 26, 1950, India became

(1) Independent

(2) Democratic

(3) Republic

(4) Non-aligned

83. A car moves at 120 kmph, the distance covered by it in 15 minutes, is

(1) 20 km

(2) 30 km

(3) 40 km

(4) 50 km

84. Who invented the cholera vaccine?

(1) Joseph Lister

(2) Louis Pasteur

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) Roger Beacon

85. The smallest fraction in the following is

(1) 79

(2) 59

(3) 89

(4) 57

86. The two nuclear explosions took place in

(1) Kutch

(2) Andaman

(3) Pokharan

(4) Sunderban

87. In a group, the grandfather and his wife, father, mother, their three sons and their wives and two daughters of each son are included. The number of women in the group is

(1) 11

(2) 13

(3) 15

(4) 17

88. A cricketer scored at an average of 52 runs in 8 matches. The average of first 5 matches was 50, the average of the last 3 matches is

(1) 51.5

(2) 52.3

(3) 53.5

(4) 55.3

89. The missile fired from ground to air is

(1) Agni

(2) Trishul

(3) Naag

(4) Prithvi

90. The Railway Coach factory is situated in

(1) Varanast

(2) Kapurthala

(3) Chittaranjan

(4) Perambur

91. If a bus covers 135 km in 3 hours. The time taken to cover 200 km at the same speed is

(1) 3.22 hrs

(2) 3.44 hrs

(3) 4.22 hrs

(4) 4.44 hrs

92. The vegetation has life. Who researched on it?

(1) Hargobind Khurana

(2) Hippocratus

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) J.C. Bose

93. Which is an ice fed river?

(1) Ganges

(2) Mahanadi

(3) Tapti

(4) Godavari

94. The largest among the following

(1) 719

(2) 1216

(3) 1117

(4) 1318

95. The Runn of Kutch is known for

(1) Lion

(2) Tigers

(3) Herbivores

(4) Wild ass

96. The first commercial noncivilian aircraft is

(1) Tejas

(2) Saras

(3) Indian

(4) Volan

97. For contribution in the field of trade. Padma Bhushan, 2007 was awarded to

(1) LN Mittal

(2) S.B. Mittal

(3) Ratan Tata

(4) Azim Premji

98. The HCF of 12984, and is10864

(1) 182

(2) 380

(3) 3320

(4) 482

99. The first Indian to get Nobel Prize is

(1) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(2) C.V. Raman

(3) J.C. Bose

(4) Subhash Chandra Bose

100. Which latest satellite of INSAT series was launched in 2007?

(1) INSAT- 2B

(2) INSAT-2C

(3) INSAT-3D

(4) INSAT-4B

101. If difference between the ages of X and Y is 12 years and the ratio of their ages is 3 : 7, they what is the age of Y ?

(1) 4 years

(2) 7 years

(3) 11 years

(4) 21 years

Answer Keys :

51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (4)  96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (4) 

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

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(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-1

(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-1

1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.

(1) Arcellor

(2) Chorus

(3) Posco

(4) Jindal

2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?

(1) Paris

(2) Oslo

(3) Rome

(4) Istanbul

3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?

(1) Chandiput

(2) Pokharan

(3) Shri Harikota

(4) Sunderban

4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?

(1) Rs. 20800

(2) Rs. 21200

(3) Rs. 22400

(4) Rs. 23200

5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?

(1) Barabati

(2) Balasore

(3) Dhouli

4) Udaygiri

6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?

(1) 7

(2) 11

(3) 14

(4) 17

7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?

(1) Kinetic

(2) Magnetic

(3) Potential

(4) Constant

8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?

(1) Painting

(2) Raghurajpur

(3) Pipili

(4) Jajpur

9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?

(1) 33 kmph

(2) 25 kmph

(3) 20 kmph

(4) 15 kmph

10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?

(1) Dhanraj Pillai

(2) Probodh Tirki

(3) Gaganjit Singh

(4) Dilip Tirki

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11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?

(1) Ashoka

(2) Kharvel

(3) Jajati Keshari

(4) Chola Gangdev

12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?

(1) Rs. 1526

(2) Rs. 1772

(3) Rs. 1886

(4) Rs. 2072

13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. ‘He is the only son of my mother’s mother." How is Rita related to that man?

(1) Sister

(2) Nephew / Niece

(3) Aunt / Maternal mother

4) Mother

14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at

(1) Engule

(2) Udaipur

(3) Kakinanda 

(4) Vishakhapatnam

15. Which is the longest river of India ?

(1) Godavari

(2) Krishna

(3) Sindhu

(4) Ganges

16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?

(1) Puri

(2) Baripada

(3) Tosali

(4) Kyonjhar

17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?

(1) Y.V. Reddy

(2) Bimal Jalan

(3) N. Gopalaswamy

(4) Rajiv Chawla

18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?

(1) Brain

(2) Heart

(3) Lungs

(4) Kidney

19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?

(1) 30 kg.

(2) 35 kg

(3) 40 kg.

(4) 45 kg.

20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?

(1) Brahmani

(2) Rushikulya

(3) Nagawali

(4) Indravati

21. The Chilka lake is famous for

(1) White Whale

(2) White Shark

(3) White Dolphin

(4) White Prawn

22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.

(1) Electro magnetic

(2) Nuclear

(3) Magnetic resonance

(4) Seismic

23. Which of the following is a red planet ?

(1) Jupiter

(2) Mars

(3) Mercury

(4) Sun

24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to

(1) 129

(2) 239

(3) 259

(4) 379

25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at

(1) Geneva

(2) Paris

(3) Berlin

(4) Washington

26. In Orissa, Mig is built at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Sambalpur

(3) Berhampur

(4) Sunaveda

27. Which of the following is the first college of Orissa?

(1) Orissa Veterinary College

(2) Revanshaw College

(3) Wurla Engineering College

(4) Government Arts College

28. Which of the following is a Hockey player?

(1) Dilip Tirki

(2) V.V.S. Lakshman

(3) W.Bhutia

(4) Pravin Thipse

29. The square root of 24649 is

(1) 127

(2) 137

(3) 157

(4) 247

30. Which of the following is a chief kharif crop in Orissa ?

(1) Jawar

(2) Bajara

(3) Rice

(4) Wheat

 

31. Eager : interest : : Sharp : ?

(1) Desire

(2) Height

(3) Smile

(4) Intelligence

32. The ratio of 50 ml and 2 litres is

(1) 1 : 20

(2) 1 : 25

(3) 1 : 40

(4) 1 : 80

33. Who wrote ˜My Experiments with Truth"?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Rabindranath Tagore

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Jai Prakash Narayan

34. The deficiency of vitamin "C" causes

(1) Paralysis

(2) Scurvey

(3) T.B.

(4) Jaundice

35. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

16 ,21, 7, 13, 18, 6, 19, ?, ?

(1) 22 and 6

(2) 24 and 8

(3) 22 and 8

(4) 24 and 6

36. If one side of a square is decreased by 5% its area decreases by

(1) 6.75%

(2) 9.75%

(3) 12.50%

(4) 25%

37. Which of the following states is the most densely covered by forests ?

(1) Orissa

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

38. Who among the following was awarded with Nodel Prize in Physics ?

(1) J.C. Bose

(2) Hargobind Khurana

(3) S. Chandra Shekhar

(4) Amartya Sen

39. The " Gateway of India" is situated in

(1) Delhi

(2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai

(4) Kolkata

40. Sultan Azlan Sah Hockey Tournament 2007 was won by

(1) India

(2) Pakistan

(3) South Korea

(4) Australia

41. Winter crop season is known in India as

(1) Rabi

(2) Winter

(3) Kharif

(4) Poddu

42. 3 49 1 2 1 of ? 7 10 7 7 + + − =

(1) 15

(2) 12

(3) 13

(4)121

43. Which Indian player has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket ?

(1) B.S. Bedi

(2) Kapil Dev

(3) Sri Nath

(4) Anil Kumble

44. The population of a city is 70000. it increases at 10% in the first year and at 20% in the following year. What will be the population after 2 years ?

(1) 77000

(2) 84000

(3) 92400

(4) 104000

45. Which river flows in India through Tibbet ?

(1) Ravi

(2) Beas

(3) Brahmaputra

(4) Ganges

46. The decimal equivalent of 7 gm of a kilogram is

(1) 0.7

(2) 0.07

(3) 0.007

(4) 0.0007

47. Hyderabad was earlier known as

(1) Bhagyanagar

(2) Nizamabad

(3) Secunderabad

(4) Golconda

48. Kullu Valley is situated in

(1) Punjab

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Kashmir

(4) Uttarakhand

49. Muchkund power project is situated in the state of

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Orissa

(3) Gujarat

(4) Karnataka

50. Which mountain range divides India into north and south ?

(1) Nilgiris

(2) Satpura

(3) Vidhyas

(4) Aravali

Answer Keys :

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3)  6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)

RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

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(ऑनलाइन आवेदन) Apply Online आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा, RRB Railway Group-D Exam-2018

(ऑनलाइन आवेदन) Apply Online आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा, RRB Railway Group-D Exam-2018

ऑनलाइन आवेदन :

उम्मीदवारों को कोई एक आरआरबी की रिक्तियों के लिए ही आॅन लाइन आवेदन पैरा 20.0 में सूचित आरआरबी की अधिकारिक वेबसाईट को संदर्षन कर प्रस्तुत करना होगा।

क) आरआरबी की अधिकृत वेबसाइट पर दिए गए लिंक सी ई एन 02/2018 पर क्लिक करके आवेदन फार्म भरने से पहले उम्मीदवार सीईएन में दी गई सभी सूचनाओं और विस्तृत निर्देशों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें। यह बहुत जरूरी है कि उम्मीदवार आवेदन भरते समय किसी गलती से बचने के लिए अधिसूचना की सारी सूचना को अच्छी तरह से समझ ले।

ख) आवेदन भरने से पहले जेपीईजी फार्मेट में स्कैन किए हुए दस्तावेज तैयार रखें। उम्मीदवार को शीघ्रता से आवेदन भरने के लिए आवेदन वाले पेज पर लाॅगिन करने से पहले निम्नलिखित दस्तावेज डिजिटल फार्म में तैयार रखने चाहिएः

  • उम्मीदवार का रंगीन फोटोग्राफः जेपीईजी इमेज, जिसका साइज 20 से 50 केबी होना चाहिए।
  • अनूसूचित जाति/अनूसूचित जनजाति प्रमाणपत्र (निःशुल्क यात्रा पास मांगने वाले उम्मीदवारों के लिए) जेपीईजी इमेज, जिसका साइज 50 से 100 केबी होना चाहिए।
  • लिखने वाले व्यक्ति (स्क्राइब) का रंगीन फोटोग्राफ (जहां-कहीं लागू हो) जेपीईजी इमेज, जिसका साइज 20 से 50 केबी होना चाहिए।

ग) शैक्षिक योग्यता तथा उम्मीदवार आरक्षण कोटी के लिए आरआरबी वार रिक्तियों की जांच:
उम्मीदवारों को सलाह दी जाती है कि उनकी शैक्षिक योग्यता हेतु सभी आरआरबी द्वारा अधिसूचित रिक्तियों के लिए इस सीइएन में रिक्त तालिका की जांच करें तथा सुनिष्चित करें कि वे ऑनलाइन आवेदन जिस आरआरबी को करना चाहते है उसमें अपनी शैक्षिक योग्यता तथा समुदाय/कोटि की रिक्तियां हैं और अर्हक आयु व चिकित्सा मानक रखते हैं। आगे अर्हतानुसार आरआरबी वार रिक्तयों की षीघ्र पहचान करने सीइएन 2/2018 रिक्ति तालिका पर क्लीक करें तथा निम्न प्रकार आगे बढेेः

1. प्रथम तालिका सभी आरआरबी के रिक्तियों को आरआरबी वार संक्षिप्त में दर्षाता है।
2. आगे आरआरबी द्वारा अधिसूचित रिक्त पद के विस्तृत विवरण के लिए उम्मीदवार आरआरबी के सर्च मेनु के ड्रापडाउन सूची से आरआरबी का चयन कर उस आरआरबी के अधिसूचित पदों की रिक्तियों को देख सकते हैं।
3. रिक्ति विवरण को देखने के बाद, उम्मीदवार को सुनिष्चित करना होगा कि उनके द्वारा आवेदन करने वाले आरआरबी में अपने शैक्षिक योग्यता हेतु तथा समुदाय/पीडब्ल्यूबी/ भूतपूर्व सैनिक कोटि में रिक्ति उपलब्ध है। उसके बाद आरआरबी का चयन कर रजिस्ट्रेशन पूरा करने के बाद किसी भी स्थिति में आरआरबी में बदलाव अनुमत नहीं है। उम्मीदवारों को यह भी सलाह दी जाती है कि वे भर्ती प्रक्रिया के विभिन्न चरणों के बारे में नवीनतम जानकारी और इस अधिसूचना में किसी बदलाव के बारे में जानने के लिए आरआरबी की वेबसाइट (वेबसाइटों) को देखते रहें। वैध दस्तावेजों से यह प्रमाणित करने का दायित्व उम्मीदवारों का है कि उनके द्वारा आॅनलाइन आवेदन में दी गई समस्त सूचना सही है।

उम्मीदवार कृपया ध्यान देः

उम्मीदवारों को सलाह दी जाती है कि वे अपने व्यक्तिगत मोबइल नंबर और व्यक्तिगत वैध ईमेल को पूरी भर्ती प्रक्रिया के दौरान चालू रखें क्योंकि आरआरबी द्वारा सभी सूचनाएं/जानकारी केवल एसएमएस/ईमेल के द्वारा दी जायेगी। आरआरबी किसी भी चरण में मोबाइल नंबर या ईमेल एड्रेस में परिवर्तन के किसी अनुरोध पर विचार नहीं करेगा। उम्मीदवार नोट करें कि रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड के साथ संपर्क/भर्ती प्रक्रिया के आगे के चरणो ं के लिए अपना पंजीकरण संख्या संभाल कर रखे ।

ऑनलाइन आवेदन के लिए यहां क्लिक करें

NEW RRB Group-D Exam 2018 Study Kit

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा 2018 अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

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